Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 24 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer the following in not more than two sentences
Any Six · 12 Marks
Answer
The accused was arrested by the police last night.
Answer
Rahul said to Aman, "We are going to watch a movie tonight."
Answer
Alas! The old man is no more.
(Equally acceptable: Alas, the old man is no more.)
Answer
You are coming to the party, aren't you?
Answer
She loves everyone.
(Equally acceptable: She likes everybody.)
Answer
| Element | What it means |
|---|---|
| Pravin Solanki | The first-named party, the appellant or petitioner, who brought this proceeding. |
| v. | Versus, "against". |
| Narendra Shah | The second-named party, the respondent. |
| AIR | All India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed, published from Nagpur since 1914. |
| 2014 | The year of the volume in which the case appears. |
| SC | Supreme Court, the court that decided it. |
| 183 | The page of that volume at which the report begins. |
Read as a whole: the case of Pravin Solanki against Narendra Shah, decided by the Supreme Court of India and reported at page 183 of the 2014 volume of the All India Reporter.
Answer
One India One People is an English-language monthly magazine published from Mumbai by the One India One People Foundation, started in 1997 by the industrialist Sadanand A. Shetty. Any two of the following are features of it:
Answer
Answer
Law is the body of rules of conduct recognised and enforced by the State, which regulates the relations of persons among themselves and with the State, and whose breach attracts a sanction applied through the courts.
The two definitions to quote are:
In Indian positive law, Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution provides that "law" includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
Answer
Nemo tenetur seipsum accusare means "no one is bound to accuse himself." It is the privilege against self-incrimination, and in India it is a fundamental right.
Article 20(3) of the Constitution: "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."
Three ingredients must be present: the person must be accused of an offence; there must be compulsion; and the compulsion must be to be a witness against himself.
Write Short Note on
Any 2 · 12 Marks
Answer
De minimis non curat lex, printed on the paper as "De Minimus", means "the law does not concern itself with trifles." The law will not take notice of very small or trivial matters, and a court will refuse a remedy where the injury complained of is so slight that no reasonable person would think it worth complaining about.
Why the rule exists. Courts are a scarce public resource and litigation is expensive. If every trivial interference were actionable, the courts would be occupied with the loss of a single leaf from a neighbour's tree while genuine claims waited behind it. The maxim is a rule of judicial economy and of common sense, not a permission to inflict small wrongs.
Where it operates:
Answer
(1) CAUSE OF ACTION.
A cause of action is the bundle of essential facts which the plaintiff must prove in order to succeed, that is, every fact which, if traversed, it would be necessary for him to prove in order to support his right to the judgment of the court. The classical statement is that of Lord Esher in Read v. Brown (1888), in those words. It does not include the evidence by which those facts are proved, nor the defence.
Where it matters in practice:
(2) POWER OF ATTORNEY.
A power of attorney is a formal instrument by which one person, the principal or donor, authorises another, the agent or attorney, to act on his behalf, so that the acts of the attorney within the authority conferred bind the principal as if he had done them himself. It is governed by the Powers of Attorney Act, 1882, and, as a species of agency, by Sections 182 to 238 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Kinds: a general power of attorney confers authority in all matters or in all matters of a class; a special power confers authority for a single transaction.
Formalities. It must be in writing, signed and stamped; and where it is executed before a notary, a magistrate or a consular officer, Section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, raises a presumption of due execution, relieving the party relying on it of proving the signature.
Construction. A power of attorney is construed strictly: the attorney has only the authority expressly conferred and what is necessarily incidental to it. A power to manage does not include a power to sell, and a power to sell does not include a power to mortgage.
Revocation. It may be revoked by the principal before the authority is exercised, and is terminated automatically by the death, insanity or insolvency of the principal. It is irrevocable where the authority is coupled with an interest: Section 202 of the Indian Contract Act.
Currency. In Suraj Lamp & Industries Pvt Ltd v. State of Haryana (2012) the Supreme Court held that the "SA/GPA/WILL" method of transferring immovable property does not convey title: a transfer can be effected only by a registered deed of conveyance, and a power of attorney is not an instrument of transfer but a document of agency.
Answer
A writ is a formal written order issued by a court commanding the person to whom it is addressed to do, or to refrain from doing, a specified act. In Indian constitutional law the word refers to the five prerogative writs.
The two jurisdictions, which must be distinguished first:
The five writs:
Answer
Ubi jus ibi remedium means "where there is a right, there is a remedy." It states that the law will not recognise a right without at the same time providing a means of enforcing it, so that wherever the law confers a right, it also confers an action to vindicate that right when it is infringed.
Three propositions follow:
The leading case is Ashby v. White (1703). A qualified voter was wrongfully prevented by a returning officer from casting his vote; the candidate he supported was elected in any event, so he suffered no loss whatever. Chief Justice Holt held that he had an action nonetheless, saying that if the plaintiff has a right he must of necessity have a means to vindicate it, and that want of a remedy is want of a right. This is the classic authority for the proposition that injury to a legal right is actionable without proof of damage.
The two maxims to be read with it:
In Indian law the maxim is given effect by Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, under which the civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature unless barred, and, at the constitutional level, by Article 32, which makes the remedy itself a fundamental right.
Answer the following
Any 2 · 12 Marks
Answer
34 of 1971) [10 August, 1971] An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-second Year of the Republic of India as follows: -
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Short Title | "This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", Section 1(1). The name by which the Act is cited. |
| (ii) Official Citation | "(ACT NO. 34 of 1971)", the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment. |
| (iii) Long Title | "An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." It states the general purpose and scope of the Act. |
| (iv) Date of Commencement | The extract does not give one. Section 1(3) provides that the Act "shall come into force on such dates as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette appoint", so the date of commencement is the date the Central Government appoints by notification, and is not stated on the face of the Act. |
Answer
10 of 1994) [8th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Court for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows: - CHAPTER -I : Preliminary
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (a) Marginal Notes | "Short title, extent and commencement." the short heading printed against Section 1, summarising its contents. |
| (b) Long Title | "An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Court for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." |
| (c) Date of assent | 8th January, 1994, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act, being the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution. |
| (d) Official Citation | "(Act No. 10 of 1994)" |
Answer
THE MATERNITY BENEFIT ACT, 1961 (ACT NO.53 OF 1961) [12th December, 1961] An Act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishments for certain periods before and after child-birth and to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits. Be it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows: -
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (a) Preamble | "An Act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishments for certain periods before and after child-birth and to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits." |
| (b) Official Citation | "(ACT NO. 53 OF 1961)" |
| (c) Short title | "This Act may be called The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961", Section 1(1). |
| (d) Enacting Formula | "Be it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows: -" |
Answer
Step 1. Frame the issue and fix the search terms. The issue is: who is legally capable of entering into a contract, and what is the effect of an agreement made by a person who is not? Search under capacity to contract, competency, minor, majority, unsound mind, disqualified by law, void ab initio, necessaries.
Step 2. Go to the statute first, because it fixes the framework.
Step 3. Take the three requirements one at a time and search under each.
(a) Age of majority. Notice the gap in the statute: Sections 10 and 11 say who is competent and say nothing about what happens when an incompetent person contracts. That gap is filled by Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) 30 IA 114, ILR 30 Cal 539, a decision of the Privy Council, which held that a minor's agreement is void ab initio and not merely voidable; that Sections 64 and 65 of the Contract Act do not apply, because they presuppose a contract between competent parties; and that estoppel does not operate against a minor where the other party knew of the minority.
The qualifications, from the later cases: a minor may enforce a contract made for his benefit; his estate is liable for necessaries under Section 68, which is a quasi-contractual liability; he cannot ratify on attaining majority; there is no estoppel against him, though equity may order restitution of property still traceable; and he may act as an agent and be admitted to the benefits of a partnership under Section 30 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
(b) Soundness of mind. The test in Section 12 is applied at the moment of contracting, so a person usually of unsound mind may contract during a lucid interval, and a person usually of sound mind may not contract while he is delirious or intoxicated. The burden lies on the person alleging unsoundness.
(c) Disqualification by law. Search for the categories: alien enemies, who cannot contract during a war without licence; foreign sovereigns and diplomats, who may contract but cannot be sued without sanction; insolvents, whose capacity to deal with their property passes to the official assignee until discharge; convicts, while undergoing sentence; and corporations, whose capacity is limited by their constitutive documents and by the doctrine of ultra vires.
Step 4. Verify and bring the search forward. Use a digest, the AIR Manual under the section, a citator, and SCC Online, Manupatra or Indian Kanoon, to confirm that Mohori Bibee has been followed and not overruled and to collect the recent applications.
Step 5. Read the judgment, not the headnote, and record the citation with the court, since that fixes the authority: a Privy Council decision of 1903 continues to bind Indian courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court.
Answer the following questions
Any 2 · 24 Marks
Answer
What it is. A Uniform Civil Code is a single body of law governing personal matters, marriage, divorce, maintenance, guardianship, adoption, succession and inheritance, applying to all citizens alike, in place of the separate personal laws that presently apply according to religion.
The constitutional basis. Article 44, a Directive Principle: "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India." Being a Directive Principle it is not enforceable by any court, but it is fundamental in the governance of the country.
The present position: India is already partly unified. The criminal law, contract, property, transfer of property, evidence, procedure and torts are common to all. Only personal law is fragmented. The Special Marriage Act, 1954, is already an optional secular code available to any two persons; Goa has had a common civil code since the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867; and Uttarakhand became the first State to enact a Uniform Civil Code, passed in February 2024 and brought into force in January 2025.
THE CASE THAT IT IS THE RIGHT TIME.
THE CASE THAT IT IS NOT.
A WAY FORWARD, which is what the question's own framing invites.
Conclusion. The case for uniformity is a case about equality, and it is strong. The case against uniformity is a case about consent, and it is also strong. They are reconcilable, because Article 44 requires the State to SECURE a uniform code, not to IMPOSE one. The answer to the question asked is therefore not "yes" or "no" but "not in one step". A code arrived at by reforming each personal law until the differences no longer matter would satisfy Article 44 without the costs, and it is the route the Law Commission has twice recommended.
Answer
What artificial intelligence is. AI is the capability of a computer system to perform tasks that ordinarily require human intelligence: learning from data, reasoning, recognising patterns, understanding and generating natural language, and making predictions. What exists today is narrow AI, built for particular tasks; machine learning is the branch in which a system learns rules from data rather than being programmed with them, and generative AI the branch that produces new text.
THE ROLE IT ALREADY PLAYS.
THE RISKS.
THE LINE THE LAW HAS DRAWN. AI may assist; it may not decide. Indian courts have used it as a reference tool and have said expressly that such use is for reference only and forms no part of the reasoning. That is right for a reason beyond technology: judicial discretion is a responsibility placed on a person who is accountable, must give reasons and can be appealed against. A machine has none of those attributes, and the day it did, it would be a judge and not a tool.
Conclusion. The role of artificial intelligence in the legal field is to remove the mechanical part of legal work, and the mechanical part is most of it. In a system with India's pendency and India's language barrier that is not a marginal gain. What it cannot do is judge, because judgment means weighing incommensurable considerations and answering for the result. The right posture is neither refusal nor delegation but supervised use: the machine drafts and the lawyer verifies; the machine sorts and the judge decides.
Answer
Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, (1997) 1 SCC 416, decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.
Facts. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, wrote a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986, drawing attention to newspaper reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and submitting that it was imperative to develop "custodial jurisprudence" and to formulate modalities for awarding compensation to victims and their families and for the accountability of the officers concerned. The letter was treated as a writ petition under Article 32 in the exercise of the Court's epistolary jurisdiction. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri about a custodial death at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to every State Government and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits showing that custodial deaths were continuing.
Issues.
Reasoning. The Court described custodial torture as "a naked violation of human dignity", and held that the right guaranteed by Article 21 is not lost by a convict, an undertrial, a detenu or any other prisoner in custody. It explained why declarations alone had failed: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so protection must operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on proof afterwards.
The eleven guidelines, to be followed in all cases of arrest and detention:
Breach was to attract departmental action and contempt of court, and the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards.
Compensation. Monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy in public law for an established infringement of Article 21; it is distinct from a private law claim in tort; it rests on strict liability, to which sovereign immunity is no defence; and the State may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) and Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar (1983).
Aftermath. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, by the amendment of 2008, inserting Sections 41B, 41D, 50A and 55A; the Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries them forward. In 2015 the Court directed the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020).
Answer
Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.
Facts. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker employed in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. In the course of her work she attempted to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a village family, and in 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. She met obstruction at every stage, and in 1995 the trial court acquitted the accused; the State's appeal has remained pending in the Rajasthan High Court.
A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, with other social activists and non-governmental organisations, as a class action in the public interest, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain a general remedy: a declaration that sexual harassment at the workplace violates fundamental rights, and directions to protect working women. The petitioners' point was that she was attacked because of her work, and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.
Issues.
The decision.
The guidelines.
Aftermath. Applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999) and Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013). Sixteen years after the judgment Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, in force from 9 December 2013, requiring an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees and a Local Committee in each district for the unorganised sector, and prescribing the inquiry procedure, time limits, interim reliefs and penalties. The guidelines are therefore no longer the source of the obligation, though the case remains the constitutional foundation on which the Act rests.
Answer
Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision considered of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the arguments, the judgment of the court and the order made, edited and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent in later cases.
A law report is not the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, and not a transcript, which is a verbatim note of proceedings. It is selective and edited: only a small fraction of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus which the judgment does not itself contain.
Why they exist. The doctrine of precedent requires that like cases be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found, so law reporting is the machinery that makes precedent workable. It also makes the law certain, secures equality before the law under Article 14, makes the judiciary accountable to criticism, and supplies the material of legal education.
What a properly reported case contains, in order: the court and the names of the judges; the parties and the date of judgment; catchwords and a headnote, summarising the facts and the propositions decided, written by the editor; the cases cited; the counsel who appeared; a statement of the facts and the procedural history; the judgments verbatim, including any dissent; and the order with costs.
TWO LAW REPORTS.
(1) All India Reporter (AIR).
(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC).
Two others worth a line each. Supreme Court Reports (SCR), the official report published under the authority of the Supreme Court, which should be cited where a case appears in it; and Indian Law Reports (ILR), published by the State Governments under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875, section 3 of which provides that no court is bound to hear cited, as a report of a High Court decision, any report other than the ILR where one exists. Specialist reports include Cri LJ, ITR, DMC, LLJ and CWN.
Answer
Air pollution, primarily caused by vehicular emissions, coal-fired power plants and industrial effluents, contributes to smog, acid rain and respiratory diseases. Water pollution from untreated sewage and chemical run-off devastates aquatic ecosystems and contaminates drinking water sources.
Soil pollution, often a result of improper waste disposal and excessive pesticide use, reduces agricultural productivity and enters the food chain. In India, the judiciary has played a proactive role in addressing these issues.
The landmark case M.C. Mehta v.
Union of India, popularly known as the Oleum Gas Leak case, introduced the principle of absolute liability for enterprises engaged in hazardous activities. The Supreme Court held that any entity handling hazardous substances is strictly liable for any harm caused, regardless of negligence or fault.
This judgment paved the way for stricter environmental regulations and the enactment of laws such as the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Moreover, the National Green Tribunal (NGT), established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, provides a specialized forum for expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forests and natural resources.
The NGT has powers to grant relief and compensation for damages to persons and property, and it has been instrumental in enforcing compliance with environmental laws. Despite these legal advancements, challenges persist.
Rapid urban growth, inadequate waste management infrastructure and lack of public awareness continue to exacerbate pollution levels. Therefore, a multi-pronged approach combining stringent enforcement, technological innovation and community participation is essential to mitigate the adverse effects of pollution.
1. What are the three major types of environmental pollution mentioned in the passage?
The passage names air pollution, water pollution and soil pollution, and gives the cause and the effect of each:
The passage attributes the rise in all three to the rapid pace of industrialisation and urbanisation in developing nations, and says that it threatens public health, biodiversity and climate stability.
2. Explain the principle of absolute liability as laid down in M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (the Oleum Gas Leak case).
As the passage states it: the case introduced the principle of absolute liability for enterprises engaged in hazardous activities, and the Supreme Court held that any entity handling hazardous substances is strictly liable for any harm caused, regardless of negligence or fault. The passage adds that the judgment paved the way for stricter environmental regulations and for the enactment of laws such as the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Beyond the passage, the rule in the Court's own terms: where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of that activity, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those affected, and the liability is NOT subject to any of the exceptions which operate against the tortious principle of strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher. The Court added that compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, so that it has a deterrent effect. The case was decided in 1987 and arose from the escape of oleum gas from the Shriram plant in Delhi in December 1985.
The difference from strict liability, which is what "absolute" means: Rylands v. Fletcher (1868) makes a person liable for the escape of a dangerous thing from a non-natural use of land, subject to five exceptions, the plaintiff's own default, act of God, act of a stranger, consent, and statutory authority. Absolute liability removes all of them, and dispenses with the requirement of escape, since the harm may be to workmen inside the premises as much as to neighbours outside.
3. What is the role of the National Green Tribunal in India?
As the passage states it: the NGT was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, and it:
Beyond the passage, it may be added that the Tribunal sits with judicial members and expert members together, which is what makes it "specialised": environmental cases turn on scientific and technical questions that an ordinary court is not equipped to decide. The Supreme Court had suggested exactly such a body in M. C. Mehta itself, so the two answers on this page are connected.
4. According to the passage, why is a multi-pronged approach needed to combat pollution?
Because, in the passage's own words, "despite these legal advancements, challenges persist." It identifies three which the law by itself does not reach:
all of which continue to exacerbate pollution levels.
The passage therefore concludes that an approach combining stringent enforcement, technological innovation and community participation is essential to mitigate the adverse effects of pollution. The reasoning is that the three obstacles are of different kinds, and each requires a different instrument: enforcement answers non-compliance, technology answers inadequate infrastructure, and community participation answers the lack of awareness. No single measure addresses all three, which is precisely why the approach must be multi-pronged.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 24 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
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