Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 24 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer any Six questions in one or two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
The smuggler was arrested by the police.
Answer
Heena won't mind if I use her book, will she?
Answer
The tense is the simple past, also called the past indefinite tense. The verb is visited, the past form of visit, in the active voice.
Answer
We must eat to live.
(Equally acceptable: Without eating we cannot live.)
Answer
Answer
A power of attorney is a formal instrument by which one person, the principal or donor, authorises another, the agent or attorney, to act on his behalf, so that the acts of the attorney within the authority conferred bind the principal as if he had done them himself.
It is governed by the Powers of Attorney Act, 1882, and, as a species of agency, by Sections 182 to 238 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. It may be general, conferring authority in all matters or in all matters of a class, or special, conferring authority for a single transaction.
Answer
Amicus curiae is Latin for "friend of the court". It means a person, usually a senior advocate, who is not a party to the proceeding and who is appointed by the court, or permitted by it, to assist the court on a question of law or fact.
Answer
Alibi is Latin for "elsewhere". As a plea in a criminal trial it means the defence that at the time the offence was committed the accused was somewhere else, and so far away that it was physically impossible for him to have been at the scene, so that he could not have committed it.
It is not one of the general exceptions to criminal liability; it is a plea of fact, and it operates through Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, now the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, under which facts not otherwise relevant become relevant if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue.
Answer
Some people work best in the mornings; others do better in the evenings.
Answer
He asked how they would get there.
(Equally: She asked how they would get there, or, if a listener is named, He asked me how they would get there.)
Write Short Notes on two of the following 12 Marks
Answer
The maxim, from Cicero's De Legibus, means "the welfare (or safety) of the people is the supreme law." It expresses the principle that the interest of the community prevails over the interest of the individual, and that where the two conflict the law prefers the public good.
It is habitually paired with necessitas publica major est quam privata, "public necessity is greater than private necessity". Together they are the classical foundation of the state's power to interfere with private right for a public purpose.
Where it operates:
Answer
A plaint is the written statement of claim by which a civil suit is instituted. It is the plaintiff's pleading, governed by Order VII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and it sets out the facts constituting the cause of action and the relief claimed.
A complaint is an allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate, with a view to his taking action against a person who has committed an offence. It belongs to criminal procedure, and by definition it does not include a police report.
| Plaint | Complaint | |
|---|---|---|
| Branch of law | Civil | Criminal |
| Governing law | Order VII, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 | The criminal procedure code, now the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 |
| Filed by | The plaintiff | The complainant, who need not be the person injured |
| Filed before | A civil court of competent jurisdiction | A Magistrate |
| Plaint | Complaint | |
|---|---|---|
| Form | Must be in writing, in the prescribed form, with particulars | May be oral or written |
| What it starts | A suit | A complaint case, one of the two routes into a criminal court, the other being a police report |
| Contents | Parties, jurisdiction, cause of action with dates, the value of the subject matter, the relief claimed | The facts constituting the offence, and the name of the accused if known |
| Court fee | Payable, and ad valorem on the relief claimed | Ordinarily none |
| First judicial step | Registration; the plaint may be returned or rejected under Order VII Rules 10 and 11 | The Magistrate examines the complainant on oath, may order an inquiry, and then either issues process or dismisses the complaint |
| Plaint | Complaint | |
|---|---|---|
| Object | To obtain a decree: money, possession, injunction, declaration | To obtain the punishment of the offender |
| Standard of proof at trial | Balance of probabilities | Beyond reasonable doubt |
Answer
Caveat emptor means "let the buyer beware." It is the rule of the law of sale that the buyer must satisfy himself, before he buys, as to the quality and fitness of the goods for his purpose, and that in the absence of fraud or of an express warranty the seller is not answerable for defects in what he sells.
The rule rests on two assumptions: that the buyer can inspect the goods, and that the buyer and the seller deal at arm's length and on equal terms.
The exceptions, which are now larger than the rule. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the following implied conditions and warranties are read into a contract of sale unless excluded:
The consumer legislation goes further. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a consumer has a remedy for a defect in goods and a deficiency in services, for unfair trade practices, and, under the product liability provisions, against the manufacturer, service provider and seller. These rights cannot be contracted out of.
Answer
Audi alteram partem means "hear the other side", and it is one of the two classical rules of natural justice. It requires that no person shall be condemned unheard: before an order is made affecting a person's rights, interests or legitimate expectations, he must be given notice of the case against him and a fair opportunity to answer it.
Its content, which is where the marks are:
Cases. Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863), where a house was demolished without notice and the court held that even a statutory power carried an implied duty to hear; Ridge v. Baldwin (1964), which revived the principle in modern administrative law; A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), holding that the duty applies to administrative as well as quasi-judicial action; and Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), holding that the procedure contemplated by Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, which brings natural justice into the Constitution itself.
Exceptions. A genuine emergency requiring immediate action, such as the seizure of contaminated food; express statutory exclusion, subject to Article 14; confidentiality or the security of the State; impracticability, as with very large numbers of persons; academic evaluation; and the "useless formality" exception, where a hearing could not have changed the outcome, which Indian courts apply narrowly.
Answer any two of the following 12 Marks
Answer
BE it enacted by parliament in the 12th year of the Republic of India as follows:
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Short Title | "This act maybe called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961", section 1(i). The short title is the name by which the Act is cited. |
| (ii) Official Citation | "(Act No. 53 of 1961)", the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment. |
| (iii) Enacting Formula | "BE it enacted by parliament in the 12th year of the Republic of India as follows:" |
| (iv) Preamble | "An Act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishment for certain periods before and after Child-birth and to provide for Maternity benefit and certain other benefits." |
Answer
10 OF 1994 [8th January, 1994.] An Act to provide for the constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BE it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Extent | "It extends to the whole of India provided that it shall apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir only in so far as it pertains to the matters relatable to any of the entries enumerated in List I or List III in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution as applicable to that State." |
| (ii) Long title | "An Act to provide for the constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." |
| (iii) Short title | "This Act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993." |
| (iv) Date of commencement | 28th September, 1993. The extract says the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993." |
Answer
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twenty-second Year of the Republic of India as follows:
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Short Title | "This Act may be called the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", Section 1(1). |
| (ii) Official Citation | "[Act No. 34 of 1971]" |
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (iii) Enacting Formula | "BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twenty-second Year of the Republic of India as follows: --" |
| (iv) Preamble | "An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." |
Answer
Begin by noticing what makes this search different. The law of torts in India is not codified. There is no Indian Torts Act, and negligence is judge-made law received from the English common law and developed by the Indian courts. A search that begins with a statute, as it would for contract or for crime, will find nothing, and recognising that is the first step.
Step 1. Frame the issue in the language of the tort. Negligence has three ingredients, and the search terms follow them: a duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff; a breach of that duty by falling below the standard of the reasonable man; and damage caused by the breach which is not too remote. Add the defences: contributory negligence, volenti non fit injuria, act of God and inevitable accident.
Step 2. Start with the standard commentaries, because they are the finding tools for uncodified law. Ratanlal and Dhirajlal's Law of Torts, Winfield and Jolowicz and Salmond and Heuston will give the leading authorities and the current state of each rule. A textbook is not authority: it tells you where to look, and you cite the case.
Step 3. Collect the leading cases.
Step 4. Do not overlook the statutes that intersect with the tort, even though negligence itself is uncodified: the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which governs most negligence litigation in practice; the Fatal Accidents Act, 1855; the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923; and the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Step 5. Use the finding tools properly. The AIR Manual and the digests are arranged by subject; look under "Negligence" and then under the sub-heading matching your facts, "medical", "motor accident", "occupier's liability", "public authority". Then use a citator or an online database, SCC Online, Manupatra or Indian Kanoon, to bring the search forward and to check that the case has been followed and not overruled.
Step 6. Read the judgment, not the headnote, and identify the ratio decidendi, the proposition necessary to the decision on the material facts.
Step 7. Record the citation with the court, because the court fixes the authority: a Supreme Court decision binds every court in India under Article 141; a High Court decision binds only the courts subordinate to it; and an English decision, however famous, is persuasive only.
Answer any Two of the following 24 Marks
Answer
The proposition. Technology has changed policing in three ways: it has changed how crimes are detected and investigated, how police forces are organised and held accountable, and what counts as a crime at all. Indian law has followed each of those changes, in some places by statute and in others by judicial decision.
1. Detection and investigation.
2. Organisation and accountability.
3. New offences and new powers. The Information Technology Act, 2000, created a body of computer-related offences; the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022, replaced the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920, and permits the collection of a much wider range of "measurements", including biological samples and behavioural attributes; and the Telecommunications Act, 2023 carries forward interception powers.
4. The effect on the law of evidence. This is where a law student can say something no general essay can. Electronic records are admissible only on compliance with the certificate requirement for electronic evidence. In Anvar P. V. v. P. K. Basheer (2014) the Supreme Court held the certificate mandatory; Shafhi Mohammad relaxed it; and Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal (2020) settled the question by holding it mandatory again, while providing for the position where the certificate cannot be obtained. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, carries the requirement forward. The practical lesson is that technology does not prove itself: a video, a call record or a message is worthless in court unless its authenticity and chain of custody are established.
5. The limits the courts have set.
6. The risks, which the essay must state.
Conclusion. Technology has made policing far better at finding out what happened, and it has not, by itself, made it fairer. Its greatest contribution to fairness is the least glamorous one: the camera in the lock-up and the recorded search, which are not tools of detection at all but tools of accountability. The right test for any new policing technology is the one in Puttaswamy: is there a law, is the aim legitimate, is this the least restrictive means, and what happens when it goes wrong? A technology that cannot answer the fourth question should not be deployed on the strength of the first three.
Answer
The proposition. English is the world's lingua franca: not the language with the most native speakers, which is Mandarin, but the one most widely used as a second language, and the default medium of international communication in science, business, aviation, diplomacy and the internet. The phrase is the title of David Crystal's English as a Global Language (1997).
How it happened. Crystal's answer is that a language becomes global not because of any quality in the language itself but because of the power of the people who speak it, and that power has been of four kinds:
Add its role in international institutions, in civil aviation, where ICAO requires English for radio communication, and in maritime communication.
English in India, which is the part of the essay a law examiner can reward.
The case in favour. Access to scholarship, science and international employment; a neutral link in a country of twenty-two scheduled languages, which is precisely the argument the non-Hindi-speaking States made in the 1960s and which kept English in the 1963 Act; mobility, since it is the single largest determinant of employability in the Indian service economy; and the law, since Indian legal literature, the reports, the authoritative texts of statutes and the whole body of received common law are in English.
The case against.
Conclusion. English in India is neither a foreign imposition nor a native language; it is an Indian language with a foreign origin, spoken by more people in India than in England and producing its own literature and its own standard. The question is no longer whether India should use English but who gets to. So long as it remains the language of the courts, the universities and the professions, access to it is access to power, and the argument about English is really an argument about equality.
Answer
Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.
The background. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. She tried to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a village family, and in 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. The trial court acquitted the accused in 1995. A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, with other organisations, as a class action, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain protection for working women generally, on the footing that she had been attacked because of her work and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.
The holdings on which the guidelines rest.
The guidelines.
What followed. Applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999) and Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013). Sixteen years after the judgment Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, in force from 9 December 2013, requiring an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees and a Local Committee in each district for the unorganised sector, and prescribing the inquiry procedure, time limits, interim reliefs and penalties. The guidelines are therefore no longer the source of the obligation, though the case remains the constitutional foundation on which the Act rests.
Answer
Citation. M. C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, (1987) 1 SCC 395, the Oleum Gas Leak case, a Constitution Bench of five judges, judgment delivered by Chief Justice P. N. Bhagwati.
Facts. Shriram Foods and Fertilizer Industries, a unit of Delhi Cloth Mills, operated a caustic chlorine and oleum plant in a densely populated part of Delhi, where about two lakh people lived within a radius of some three kilometres. On 4 December 1985, days after the first anniversary of the Bhopal disaster, oleum gas escaped from one of its units; a number of people were affected and an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died. A second escape occurred on 6 December 1985. M. C. Mehta had already moved the Court under Article 32 for closure and relocation of the plant; after the leak, applications for compensation were made in the same proceeding.
Issues.
The decision and the guidelines.
1. The rule of absolute liability, which is the heart of the case and should be given in something close to the Court's own words: where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of that activity, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those affected, and the liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate against the tortious principle of strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher.
The three reasons the Court gave:
2. The measure of damages. Compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, so that it has a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the larger the sum payable. This substitutes a partly punitive measure for the ordinary compensatory one.
3. Article 32. The Court held its power under Article 32 to be remedial and not merely injunctive, and said it may forge new remedies and fashion new strategies to enforce fundamental rights, including an award of compensation, at least where the infringement is gross and affects persons in a disadvantaged position.
4. Article 12. The Court noted the argument that Shriram might be "other authority", but expressly declined to decide it, since the applications could be disposed of without it. Say this; many scripts wrongly assert that the Court held a private company to be "State".
5. Directions on the plant itself. By an earlier order the Court permitted the caustic chlorine plant to restart subject to stringent conditions recommended by expert committees: inspection by an expert committee, an operator on site, a safety siren, a bank guarantee of Rs 20 lakh against future escapes, and undertakings from the management carrying personal liability.
6. A specialised forum. The Court observed that such cases raise questions of scientific and technical fact and suggested the setting up of environment courts with professional judges assisted by experts. That suggestion was realised much later in the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Significance. Absolute liability is the largest single Indian contribution to the law of torts. It was applied in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India (1996) to make a polluter pay the cost of restoring the environment, and it is reflected in the no-fault liability created by the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991. The principal criticism is that in the Bhopal settlement the Court did not in the end apply the measure of damages it had proposed here.
Answer
Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision considered of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the arguments, the judgment and the order, edited and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent.
It is not the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, and not a transcript, which is a verbatim note of proceedings. It is selective and edited: only a small fraction of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus the judgment does not contain.
The importance of law reports.
Two law reports, with their features.
(1) All India Reporter (AIR).
(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC).
Two others in a line each. Supreme Court Reports (SCR), the official report published under the authority of the Supreme Court, which should be cited where a case appears in it; and Indian Law Reports (ILR), published by the State Governments under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875, section 3 of which provides that no court is bound to hear cited, as a report of a High Court decision, any report other than the ILR where one exists.
What a properly reported case contains, and why: the court and judges, which fix the authority; the parties and date; catchwords and a headnote, written by the editor as a finding aid; the cases cited; the counsel; the facts and procedural history; the judgments verbatim, including any dissent; and the order with costs.
Answer
The deity's legal rights and desires and wishes, are expressed through the hereditary priests who manage the temple and who have been doing so for several generations. This draws our attention to a very important but overlooked theme in Indian society where gods play significant role in establishing society.
Deities have always played an important role in social engineering and we have to think about it carefully. In ancient tribes how did you bind people together?
Everybody had a different opinion, this could have led to tensions between members over resource allocation, job allocation. One of the ways in which the tribe was kept together was by establishing an impersonal deity, to whom all are beholden and this deity's wishes were expressed through the dreams of shamans and everybody submitted to this dream.
The shamans, by staying away from the main tribal settlement, declared they had no vested interests. By submitting to this deity's dreams members remained part of the tribe.
By rejecting the deity's dreams, you would be out of the tribe. Hence the deity or the God of the tribe played a key role in binding the tribe together, which is why every tribe had its own totemic god as the anchor of its identity.
The deity, in effect, expressed the will of the tribe. Modern institutions are essentially impersonal entities that are treated by law, as a person and, therefore with rights and responsibilities.
In ancient times, this role of an institution was played by a tribal god or village god (grama devata) or the clan god (kula devata). The earliest idea of institution comes from the Roman Empire, where the senators owed allegiance not to the king or Caesar but to the city of Rome.
Later, Rome was replaced by the Church and the priestly class functioned in the name of the church. Authority came from a supernatural force.
The assumption here was that supernatural and impersonal entities are fairer. However, life is never so simple as the gods cannot speak, just as an institution cannot speak.
An institution expresses its will through its board of directors and its management committee, in the same way a deity expresses its will through its management committees, the priests and trustees. In modern times, in temples like Siddhi Vinayak in Mumbai and Sai Baba Shirdi temple, there are trusts which comprise of politicians and priests, who manage the funds of these institutions.
In India, many people abhor the idea of giving taxes to the state but they have no problem in giving large amounts of money, even shares of their companies, to the deity because they feel they will receive karmic dividends. Thus, these temples are flush with funds which are then managed by the committees of the temple, which in a way embodies the will of the deity in a temple.
This has been happening since ancient times, only then the managing committee were just hereditary Brahmin families and the king. In Puri Odisha, the Gajapati kings are considered living embodiments of the divine.
Temple cities like Kanchipuram, Madurai, Thiruvananthapuram, were designed with the temple as the most imposing structure of stone in the center, the royal palace was made of wood next to it. Brahmins and courtiers lived around this temple-palace complex.
Then came the markets. Then the fields.
Finally the outlier space for service-providers, who were involved in cleaning the city, hence deemed 'untouchables' (Hinduism's darkest legacy). With the help of the temple, and its impersonal deity, the Brahmins helped the king bind various clans and communities and tribes.
For example, in the tribal areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, the chariot of the Goddess is built part by part by various tribes. They all have to come together to build this chariot.
A teamwork, a collaboration, that binds people together. One can argue that deities in India, and their temple culture, through the priestly class functioned as an impersonal proto-institution that bound communities together and helped legitimize the kingship.
It made the kingdom not the king's property but the king's responsibility. The king was merely a trustee who takes care of the deity's people.
But the quality of the deity's will like the quality of an institution's value is a function of the biases of the management committee, the male Brahmins in this case. It is time their 'divine' dreams moved out of medieval times and became more in line with the modern times.
(a) Why do Indian citizens donate large amounts of money to temples but not to the Government of India as income tax? (3 marks)
The passage says that many people in India abhor the idea of giving taxes to the state, but have no problem in giving large amounts of money, and even shares of their companies, to the deity, and it gives one reason: because they feel they will receive "karmic dividends".
The contrast the author is drawing is between two kinds of return. A tax produces no visible or personal return to the person who pays it, and is felt as money taken; a donation to a deity is believed to produce a return to the donor himself, in the form of merit. The result, the passage says, is that these temples are flush with funds, which are then managed by the committees of the temple.
(b) How does a deity express his will? (3 marks)
The passage answers this twice, in two different periods.
In ancient tribes, the deity's wishes were expressed through the dreams of the shamans, and everybody submitted to those dreams; the shamans, by staying away from the main tribal settlement, declared that they had no vested interests.
In the temple, and in modern times, the deity's legal rights, desires and wishes are expressed through the hereditary priests who manage the temple, and, more broadly, through its management committees, the priests and the trustees. The passage draws an express analogy: just as an institution cannot speak and expresses its will through its board of directors and its management committee, so a deity expresses its will through its management committee. It gives as examples the trusts of the Siddhivinayak temple in Mumbai and the Sai Baba temple at Shirdi, which comprise politicians and priests.
(c) How were the tribes kept together? (3 marks)
The passage says that in ancient tribes everybody had a different opinion, which could have led to tensions between members over resource allocation and job allocation. One of the ways in which the tribe was kept together was by establishing an impersonal deity, to whom all were beholden. The deity's wishes were expressed through the dreams of the shamans, and everybody submitted to them.
The mechanism was one of inclusion and exclusion: by submitting to the deity's dreams, members remained part of the tribe; by rejecting them, one would be out of the tribe. Hence, the passage concludes, the deity or the god of the tribe played a key role in binding the tribe together, which is why every tribe had its own totemic god as the anchor of its identity, and the deity, in effect, expressed the will of the tribe.
(d) What assumptions can be drawn from the passage? (3 marks)
The passage states one assumption expressly and then challenges it, and a full answer gives both.
The assumption it names: speaking of the Roman Empire and the Church, the passage says that authority came from a supernatural force, and that "the assumption here was that supernatural and impersonal entities are fairer". The belief, in other words, is that a rule which comes from a god or from an institution rather than from a named person will be impartial, because it has no personal interest.
The passage's answer to that assumption, which is its central argument: "life is never so simple as the gods cannot speak, just as an institution cannot speak." Because the deity cannot speak, its will is in fact expressed by the human beings who manage it, and therefore "the quality of the deity's will, like the quality of an institution's value, is a function of the biases of the management committee, the male Brahmins in this case."
Further assumptions that may be drawn from the passage as a whole: that deities functioned as an impersonal proto-institution that bound communities together and legitimised kingship, making the kingdom not the king's property but the king's responsibility, the king being merely a trustee who takes care of the deity's people; and that the arrangement had a cost, since the design of the temple cities placed the service-providers in the outlier space and they were deemed "untouchables", which the passage calls "Hinduism's darkest legacy". The author's own conclusion is that it is time these "divine" dreams moved out of medieval times and became more in line with modern times.
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This volume prints the 2024-25 - ATKT Set 2 60/40 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 24 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
11 August 2026.
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