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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2023-24 - ATKT 60/40 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2023-24 - ATKT 60/40 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2023-24 - ATKT 60/40 examination.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2023-24 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  19 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • Please check whether you have got the right question paper.
  • 2. Figures to the right indicate full marks.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer in one or two sentences only 12 Marks

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1.What is the object behind sec 125 of the criminal procedure code?

Answer

The object of Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, now Section 144 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, is to provide a speedy, summary and inexpensive remedy against destitution and vagrancy, by compelling a person of sufficient means to maintain his wife, his legitimate or illegitimate minor children, and his father or mother who are unable to maintain themselves.

It is a measure of social justice, enacted under Articles 15(3) and 39 of the Constitution, and it is secular in operation: it applies to persons of every religion, irrespective of their personal law.

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2.What is the status of the women's Reservation Bull today?

Answer

It is no longer a Bill. It was enacted as the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023, titled the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, passed by both Houses in September 2023 and assented to on 28 September 2023.

It provides for the reservation of one-third of the seats in the House of the People, in the Legislative Assemblies of the States and in the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, for women, including one-third of the seats already reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

But it is not yet in operation. The amendment provides that the reservation will take effect after the census taken after its commencement, and after the delimitation exercise that follows that census, and it is to remain in force for fifteen years from commencement, with seats rotating after each delimitation.

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3.What is the task of the judges and lawyers in interpreting the stateless?

Answer

The task of the judge is to ascertain and give effect to the intention of the legislature as it is expressed in the words the legislature has used. He does this by applying the rules of construction, the literal rule first, then, where the words are ambiguous or would produce an absurdity, the golden rule, the mischief rule in Heydon's Case and the rule of harmonious construction, assisted by the internal aids within the Act and the external aids outside it. The judge declares the law; he does not legislate, and he may not supply a casus omissus.

The task of the lawyer is to assist the court to reach the correct construction. He must place the statute and the authorities before the court fairly, including those against his own client, argue the construction that supports his case, and never mislead the court on the law.

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4.What were names of newspapers which were published by Lokmanya Tilak?

Answer

Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded and published two newspapers from Poona in 1881:

  1. Kesari, in Marathi; and
  2. The Mahratta, in English.

They were started with Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and their associates in the Deccan Education Society circle, Agarkar editing Kesari and Tilak The Mahratta at the outset, with Tilak later taking over Kesari himself.

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5.What is Bigamy?

Answer

Bigamy is the offence of marrying again during the lifetime of one's husband or wife, where the earlier marriage is still subsisting, so that the second marriage is void by reason of the first.

  • The offence was Section 494 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, now carried into the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years and a fine. Concealing the earlier marriage from the second spouse is a graver offence.
  • In Hindu law, monogamy is a condition of a valid marriage under Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a bigamous marriage is void under Section 11, and Section 17 makes it punishable under the penal law.
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6.What do you mean by a writ name them?

Answer

A writ is a formal written order issued by a court commanding the person to whom it is addressed to do, or to refrain from doing, a specified act. In Indian constitutional law the word refers to the five prerogative writs which the Supreme Court may issue under Article 32, for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, and the High Courts under Article 226, for Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose.

The five are:

  1. Habeas corpus, "you may have the body": to a person detaining another, requiring him to produce the detained person and justify the detention.
  2. Mandamus, "we command": to a public authority or tribunal, commanding it to perform a public duty it has refused or failed to perform.
  3. Prohibition: to an inferior court or tribunal, forbidding it to continue proceedings in excess of its jurisdiction. Preventive, issued before the order.
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  1. Certiorari, "to be certified": to an inferior court or tribunal, quashing an order already passed in excess of jurisdiction, in breach of natural justice, or vitiated by an error of law apparent on the record. Curative, issued after the order.
  2. Quo warranto, "by what authority": to a person holding a public office, calling on him to show by what authority he holds it.
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7.What are the four pillars of the preamble to the construction of India?

Answer

The four ideals which the Preamble resolves to secure to all citizens, commonly called its four pillars, are:

  1. JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
  2. LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
  3. EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and
  4. FRATERNITY, assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.
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8.Define 'consumer' under the Consumers Protection Act, 1986.

Answer

Under Section 2(1)(d) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, a "consumer" means any person who:

  1. buys any goods for a consideration which has been paid or promised, or partly paid and partly promised, or under any system of deferred payment, and includes any user of such goods with the approval of the buyer, other than the person who obtains them for resale or for any commercial purpose; or
  2. hires or avails of any services for a consideration paid or promised, and includes any beneficiary of such services availed with the approval of the person who hired them, other than a person who avails of them for any commercial purpose.

The Explanation provides that "commercial purpose" does not include use by a person of goods bought and used by him, or services availed by him, exclusively for the purpose of earning his livelihood by means of self-employment.

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SECTION II

Write short notes on

Any 2 · 12 Marks

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9.S. P. Gupta v/s U.O.I[6]

Answer

Citation. S. P. Gupta v. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 149, 1981 Supp SCC 87, known as the Judges' Transfer case or the First Judges Case, decided by a Bench of seven judges, the leading judgment by Justice P. N. Bhagwati.

Facts. A group of petitions by advocates challenged, among other things, a circular of the Law Minister asking Chief Ministers to obtain consent from additional judges and from persons proposed for appointment to be posted outside their own States, the non-extension of the terms of certain additional judges, and the transfer of a Chief Justice. The petitioners also sought disclosure of the correspondence between the Law Minister, the Chief Justice of Delhi and the Chief Justice of India.

What it decided, and why it matters.

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1. Locus standi. This is the holding for which the case is chiefly studied. The Court held that where a legal wrong is caused to a person or a determinate class of persons who by reason of poverty, helplessness, disability or a socially or economically disadvantaged position are unable to approach the court, any member of the public acting bona fide may move the court under Article 226 or Article 32. This is the foundation of public interest litigation in India, and the Court added that such a person may move the court even by writing a letter, which established the epistolary jurisdiction later used in D. K. Basu and Vishaka.

2. Independence of the judiciary and "consultation". On the appointment of judges, the majority held that "consultation" in Articles 124 and 217 does not mean "concurrence", so that the opinion of the Chief Justice of India was not binding on the executive, which retained primacy.

3. Disclosure. The Court ordered disclosure of the correspondence, holding that a claim of privilege must yield where the public interest in disclosure outweighs the public interest in secrecy, and stressing open government as an aspect of the right to know under Article 19(1)(a).

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What happened to it. The holding on "consultation" was overruled in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (1993), the Second Judges Case, which established the collegium and gave primacy to the judiciary, confirmed by the Third Judges Case (1998); and the attempt to replace the collegium by the National Judicial Appointments Commission was struck down in (2015). The locus standi holding, by contrast, has never been doubted and is the case's lasting contribution.

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10.Attorney General v/s Independent Broadcasting Authority (1973) Q. B. 629[6]

Answer

Citation. Attorney General ex relatione McWhirter v. Independent Broadcasting Authority, [1973] Q.B. 629, Court of Appeal, judgments by Lord Denning M.R., Lord Justice Lawton and Lord Justice Cairns. It is usually called the McWhirter case.

Facts. Ross McWhirter, a private citizen, learned that the Independent Broadcasting Authority proposed to televise a film about the artist Andy Warhol which he considered indecent and therefore in breach of the Authority's statutory duty to satisfy itself that nothing broadcast offends against good taste or decency. He asked the Attorney General for consent to bring a relator action in the Attorney General's name. The Attorney General refused. McWhirter then applied in his own name and obtained an interim injunction.

The decision.

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  1. On the merits, the Court of Appeal discharged the injunction, holding that the Authority had considered the film and had not failed in its statutory duty, and that a court will not substitute its own judgment for that of a body Parliament has entrusted with the decision.
  2. On standing, the case is famous for Lord Denning's proposition that where the Attorney General refuses consent to a relator action, or where his machinery is too slow, a private individual who is specially affected, and indeed any citizen, may come to the court himself to enforce a public right, because otherwise the law would be unenforceable and the wrong would go unremedied. His formulation was that the Attorney General's refusal cannot deprive the court of its jurisdiction.
  3. Lawton and Cairns L.JJ. did not go so far, resting on the merits and on the applicant's particular interest.
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What became of Lord Denning's view. It was disapproved by the House of Lords in Gouriet v. Union of Post Office Workers [1978] A.C. 435, which held firmly that only the Attorney General may sue to enforce a public right, that his decision to grant or refuse consent to a relator action is not reviewable by the courts, and that a private individual may sue only where he has a private right of his own or suffers special damage over and above the public.

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11.Difference between contract for service and contract of service.[6]

Answer

A contract OF service is a contract of employment: it creates the relationship of master and servant, in which the employer has the right to direct not only what work is to be done but how it is to be done.

A contract FOR service is a contract with an independent contractor: the person engaged undertakes to produce a result, and is free to decide the manner and method of doing it.

Contract OF serviceContract FOR service
RelationshipEmployer and employee (master and servant)Employer and independent contractor
ControlOver what is done and howOver what is to be achieved only
IntegrationThe person is part of the organisationThe work is accessory to it
Vicarious liabilityThe employer is liable for torts in the course of employmentThe employer is generally not liable
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Contract OF serviceContract FOR service
Statutory protectionIndustrial and labour legislation, provident fund, gratuity, bonus, maternity benefitGoverned by the terms of the commercial contract
RemunerationWages or salary, paid periodicallyA fee or price for the job
Tools and materialsSupplied by the employerOrdinarily the contractor's own
Financial riskBorne by the employerBorne by the contractor, who can profit or lose
TerminationGoverned by service rules and labour lawGoverned by the contract

The tests the courts apply:

  1. The control test, the classical test: does the employer control the manner of doing the work? It works well for manual labour and badly for skilled professionals, because a hospital cannot direct a surgeon how to operate.
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  1. The integration or organisation test: is the work done as an integral part of the business, or merely accessory to it? This was devised to cure the defect in the control test.
  2. The multiple or economic reality test, now generally preferred: the court looks at the whole picture, including the power to select and dismiss, the payment of wages, who provides the tools and premises, who bears the financial risk, the degree of control, and whether the person is in business on his own account.
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12.Trial of Mahatma Gandhi[6]

Answer

The proceeding. Known as the Great Trial, it was held on 18 March 1922 at the Government Circuit House, Shahi Bagh, Ahmedabad, before Mr C. N. Broomfield, District and Sessions Judge. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi and Shankarlal Ghelabhai Banker, the printer and publisher of Young India, were the accused. The prosecution was conducted by the Advocate General, Sir J. T. Strangman.

The charge. Both were charged under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, with bringing or attempting to bring into hatred or contempt, or exciting disaffection towards, His Majesty's Government established by law in British India, by three articles published in Young India: "Tampering with Loyalty", "The Puzzle and its Solution" and "Shaking the Manes".

The plea. Gandhi pleaded guilty to all the charges, declined to call witnesses, and asked the court to accept his statement rather than hear evidence. He said he had no desire whatsoever to conceal from this court the fact that to preach disaffection towards the existing system of Government has become almost a passion with me.

His statement, which is the reason the trial is studied, made four points:

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  1. He described Section 124A as "the prince among the political sections of the Indian Penal Code designed to suppress the liberty of the citizen", and observed that "affection cannot be manufactured or regulated by law."
  2. "Non-violence is the first article of my faith. It is also the last article of my creed." He accepted full and complete responsibility for the violence at Chauri Chaura and Bombay, and said that he had played with fire.
  3. He explained how he had moved from being a staunch loyalist and co-operator to an uncompromising disaffectionist, and said that a system which had made India politically and economically helpless deserved no affection.
  4. He invited the maximum sentence. He told the judge that the only course open to him was either to resign his office and dissociate himself from evil if he felt that the law he was called upon to administer was evil, or to inflict on me the severest penalty if he believed the system was good for the people.
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The sentence. Broomfield J. said that "it would be impossible to ignore the fact that you are in a different category from any person I have ever tried or am likely to have to try", and that even those who differed from Gandhi looked upon him as a great patriot and a great leader. He sentenced Gandhi to six years' simple imprisonment, two years on each of the three counts, and added that if the course of events in India should make it possible for the Government to reduce the period, no one would be better pleased than I. Banker received a year's simple imprisonment and a fine. Gandhi thanked the judge and said the sentence was as mild as any judge could inflict on him.

Gandhi was released in February 1924, after an operation for appendicitis, having served about two years.

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SECTION III

Attempt

any two · 12 Marks

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13.Akshay belongs to scheduled caste and he is engaged to Sita, a Brahmin girl. They are preparing for competitive earns to get into government jobs. a) Can Sita apply under scheduled caste category after marriage with Akshay. b) Write a decided case on this subject[6]

Answer

(a) No. Sita cannot apply under the Scheduled Caste category.

Caste status is determined by birth, not by marriage. A person born into a forward caste does not become a member of a Scheduled Caste by marrying into it, and cannot claim the benefit of reservation in employment or education on the strength of that marriage.

The reasons are three:

  1. Article 341 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify the castes, races or tribes which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to a State, and membership of a specified caste is a matter of birth into the community, which no private act of the parties can alter.
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  1. The object of reservation is to compensate for the social disabilities and discrimination suffered from birth. A person who has enjoyed the advantages of an upper-caste upbringing, education and social standing has not suffered those disabilities, and to admit her would take a reserved seat from a person who has.
  2. To hold otherwise would open the door to abuse, by making marriage a route into a quota.

Two consequences follow, and both should be stated:

  • The rule works the other way as well, but not symmetrically. A woman born into a Scheduled Caste does not lose her Scheduled Caste status by marrying a forward-caste man, because her birth, and the disabilities attached to it, do not change.
  • Sita is not without a remedy of a different kind. Her marriage to Akshay would be an inter-caste marriage, which the State encourages, and the couple may be eligible for incentive schemes and for protection; and the children of the marriage will have their status determined on the facts of their upbringing, not automatically by the father's caste.

(b) The decided case.

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Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University, (1996) 3 SCC 545. A woman born a Syrian Christian, a forward community, married a man belonging to the Latin Catholic community, which was a backward class, and claimed appointment to a post reserved for backward classes on the strength of her marriage. The Supreme Court held that she was not entitled to the reservation. The Court said that reservation is intended for those who have suffered the social and economic disabilities from birth, that a person who marries into a backward class does not thereby acquire the handicaps the reservation is designed to remedy, and that allowing such a claim would defeat the constitutional object and deprive a genuine member of the community.

A second and more directly applicable authority: Sunita Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2018), where a woman born a Brahmin married a man belonging to a Scheduled Caste and obtained a Scheduled Caste certificate. The Supreme Court held that caste is determined by birth and cannot be changed by marriage, and set the certificate aside.

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14.Metro project have been undertaken by municipal corporation in the city of Mumbai for this purpose many frees were cut down and the municipal corporation has decided to cut almost 40-50 trees in the protection forest area. a) Which went can be filed in the above case to stop cutting of trees?[6]

Answer

b) State any similar case study?

(a) The proceeding and the writ.

A writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution before the High Court of Bombay, by way of a public interest litigation, and the writ sought would be:

  1. A writ of MANDAMUS, as the principal relief, commanding the Municipal Corporation and the Tree Authority to perform their statutory duties: to obtain the permission the law requires before felling, to hear objections, to give reasons, and to comply with the conditions of any forest or environmental clearance. Mandamus is the correct writ because what is complained of is a failure to discharge a public duty.
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  1. A writ of CERTIORARI, in aid of it, to quash the permission or resolution sanctioning the felling, if a decision has already been taken without jurisdiction, without hearing objections, or in breach of natural justice.
  2. A writ of PROHIBITION may be sought if the authority is about to act beyond its powers and no order has yet been passed.
  3. Above all, an interim injunction or stay, because the subject matter is irreversible: a felled tree cannot be restored by any order the court can pass afterwards, so interim relief is the whole practical value of the petition.

The other, and often better, forum. An application to the National Green Tribunal under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, which has jurisdiction over disputes arising out of the implementation of the enumerated environmental statutes, and which sits with expert members as well as judicial ones. And in Maharashtra, an objection to the Tree Authority under the Maharashtra (Urban Areas) Protection and Preservation of Trees Act, 1975, which requires permission before felling and requires objections to be considered.

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The substantive grounds to be pleaded: the right to a healthy environment under Article 21; Article 48A and Article 51A(g); the precautionary principle and sustainable development, recognised as part of Indian law in Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996); the public trust doctrine from M. C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997), under which forests are held by the State as trustee for the public and cannot be dealt with as though privately owned; and, where the land is forest, the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

(b) A similar case.

The Aarey Colony litigation, Mumbai (2019). The Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority proposed a Metro car shed at Aarey Colony, requiring the felling of a large number of trees. The Tree Authority granted permission, the Bombay High Court declined to interfere, and felling began at night. The Supreme Court took suo motu cognisance on 7 October 2019, treating a letter from law students as a petition, and stayed all further felling. The case is the closest possible parallel to the facts in this question: a Mumbai Metro project, a municipal tree authority, and trees in a forested area.

Two further authorities worth naming:

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  • T. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India (1996 onwards), in which the Supreme Court gave "forest" its dictionary meaning, irrespective of ownership or classification, and has supervised forest conservation under continuing mandamus ever since.
  • Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1985), the Dehradun quarrying case, where the Court ordered mining stopped despite the loss of employment, holding the ecological damage to be the graver consideration.
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15.Ramesh bought a laptop for Rs. 65,000/- from a Bangalore dealer. The laptop was delivered at Mumbai. On delivery it was found that the laptop did not have the features as mentioned in the offer. a) Can Ramesh file a complaint under the consumers Protection Act against the dealer?[6]

Answer

b) What is the Terri tonal jurisdiction of the District forum?

(a) Yes, Ramesh can file a complaint.

Every element of a maintainable complaint is present:

  1. He is a "consumer". He bought goods for a consideration of Rs. 65,000, and he bought them for his own use, not for resale or for a commercial purpose.
  2. A laptop is "goods", being movable property.
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  1. There is a "defect", and also an "unfair trade practice". A defect is a fault, imperfection or shortcoming in the quality, quantity, potency, purity or standard which is required to be maintained under any contract, express or implied, or as claimed by the trader in any manner whatsoever. Goods that do not have the features mentioned in the offer answer that description exactly: the offer is the trader's own claim, and the goods fall short of it. Representing that goods have features they do not have is separately an unfair trade practice.
  2. The cause of action is complete, the defect having been discovered on delivery.

The reliefs he may claim include the removal of the defect, replacement of the laptop with a new one of similar description free from defect, return of the price paid, and compensation for the loss or injury suffered, together with costs.

(b) Territorial jurisdiction of the District Forum, and the answer for Ramesh.

Under Section 11(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, a complaint may be instituted in a District Forum within whose local limits:

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  1. the opposite party, or each of them where there are more than one, actually and voluntarily resides, carries on business, or has a branch office, or personally works for gain; or
  2. any of the opposite parties so resides or carries on business, provided the others acquiesce or the Forum gives leave; or
  3. the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.

Applied to these facts: Ramesh may sue at Bangalore, where the dealer carries on business; and he may also sue at Mumbai, because part of the cause of action arose there, the laptop having been delivered at Mumbai and the defect having been discovered there. He is not compelled to travel to Bangalore.

One point of currency, and it improves his position further. The 1986 Act has been repealed and replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, in force from 20 July 2020. Section 34(2) of the 2019 Act keeps the two older grounds and adds a third: the place where the complainant resides or personally works for gain. So under the present law Ramesh may file at Mumbai on that ground alone, without having to establish where the cause of action arose. This was the single most significant procedural reform of the 2019 Act, because under the old law a consumer often had to litigate in the seller's home town.

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On pecuniary jurisdiction, a claim of Rs. 65,000 is comfortably within the District Forum's limit under the 1986 Act, and within the District Commission's limit of Rs. 50 lakh under the 2019 Act as amended in 2021.

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SECTION IV

Attempt any Two 24 Marks

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16.What is the significance of uniform civil code in the present day times? Write you suggestions for a stamp uniform civil code.[12]

Answer

What it is. A Uniform Civil Code is a single body of law governing personal matters, marriage, divorce, maintenance, guardianship, adoption, succession and inheritance, applying to all citizens alike, in place of the separate personal laws that presently apply according to religion.

The constitutional basis. Article 44, a Directive Principle: "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India." Being a Directive Principle it is not enforceable by any court, but it is fundamental in the governance of the country and the State has a duty to apply it in making laws.

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The present position. India has a partly unified civil law already. Contract, property, transfer of property, evidence, procedure, torts and the criminal law are uniform; only personal law is fragmented, into Hindu law (which by statute covers Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs), Muslim law, Christian law, Parsi law, and the Special Marriage Act, 1954, which is an optional secular code available to anyone. Goa has had a common civil code since the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867. Uttarakhand became the first State to enact a Uniform Civil Code, passed in February 2024 and brought into force in January 2025.

The significance today, which is what the question asks.

  1. Equality and non-discrimination. Personal laws contain provisions that treat men and women differently in marriage, divorce, guardianship and inheritance. A uniform code would apply Articles 14 and 15 to the area of life where inequality bites hardest.
  2. The dignity of women, which has been the driving force of the judicial pressure for a code, from Shah Bano (1985) through Sarla Mudgal (1995) and John Vallamattom v. Union of India (2003), in which the Supreme Court expressed regret that Article 44 had not been given effect.
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  1. National integration. A common code removes one of the standing markers of separate legal identity, which was the argument made in the Constituent Assembly.
  2. Simplicity and certainty. Conflicts between personal laws, and the manipulation of them, would end. Sarla Mudgal and Lily Thomas dealt with men converting to Islam in order to marry again; a common code removes the incentive.
  3. Consistency with what has already happened. Hindu law was codified and radically reformed between 1955 and 1956 without the sky falling, and the Special Marriage Act already offers a secular alternative to anyone who wants it.

The objections, which must be stated fairly.

  1. Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion, and personal law is regarded by many communities as part of religious practice. The counter-argument is that Article 25 is expressly subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III, which includes Articles 14 and 15.
  2. Diversity is itself a constitutional value. India's plurality is protected by Articles 29 and 30, and a code imposed rather than agreed would be resented as majoritarian.
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  1. It is not only a Hindu-Muslim question. Tribal communities in the North-East, protected by the Sixth Schedule and by Article 371 provisions, have customary laws of marriage and inheritance that a national code would displace, and their objection is the one least often answered.
  2. The 21st Law Commission, in its consultation paper of 2018, concluded that a Uniform Civil Code was "neither necessary nor desirable at this stage", and recommended instead the piecemeal reform of discriminatory provisions within each personal law. The 22nd Law Commission sought fresh views in 2023.

Suggestions for a model code. The question asks for these, and they are where an ordinary answer becomes a good one.

  1. Reform first, unify afterwards. Remove the discriminatory provisions inside each personal law before attempting a common code. The objection is far weaker to a code that contains nothing any community has not already accepted.
  2. Build on the Special Marriage Act, 1954, which already exists, already works and is already secular, rather than drafting from a blank sheet.
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  1. Make it optional first and universal later. A code that citizens may opt into, with the personal laws surviving for those who do not, would allow it to prove itself. Registration of the choice at marriage is the obvious mechanism.
  2. Exempt or specially provide for the Scheduled Tribes, as the Hindu Marriage Act itself does, and consult the autonomous councils of the Sixth Schedule areas before legislating for them.
  3. Legislate the specific subjects one at a time: a common law of the age of marriage, then of registration of marriages, then of maintenance, then of guardianship and adoption, and only last of succession, which is the most contentious.
  4. Take the best rule from each system rather than the majority's rule. Adoption from Hindu law, the mahr and the contractual conception of marriage from Muslim law, and the strict formalities of the Christian and Parsi laws all have something to contribute, and a code visibly drawn from all of them is far easier to defend.
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  1. Consult widely, publish a draft, and legislate only after debate, through a Law Commission draft and a select committee, not by ordinance.
  2. Make registration of every marriage compulsory, whatever law it is celebrated under. This alone would prevent most bigamy and most disputes about the fact of marriage, and it is uncontroversial.

Conclusion. The case for uniformity is a case about equality, and it is strong. The case against uniformity is a case about consent, and it is also strong. They can be reconciled, because what Article 44 requires the State to secure is a uniform code, not a hastily imposed one. A code arrived at by reforming each personal law until the differences no longer matter would satisfy Article 44 without any of the costs, and it is the route the Law Commission has recommended.

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17.Explain the significance of Reservation in the enlistment of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in India. Elucidate your answer with the help of case laws.[12]

Answer

What reservation is. Reservation is a form of protective discrimination or affirmative action: the setting apart of a proportion of seats in educational institutions, of posts in public employment and of seats in legislatures for members of specified communities, so as to secure to them the equality of opportunity which formal equality alone could not deliver.

The constitutional scheme.

  • Article 14: equality before the law; Article 15(1): no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
  • Article 15(4), inserted by the First Amendment, 1951: the State may make special provision for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes and for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • Article 15(5), inserted by the Ninety-third Amendment, 2005: reservation in educational institutions, including private unaided institutions, other than minority institutions.
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  • Article 16(4): reservation of appointments in favour of any backward class not adequately represented in the services.
  • Article 16(4A), inserted by the Seventy-seventh Amendment, 1995: reservation in promotion for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes; Article 16(4B), by the Eighty-first Amendment, 2000, on carrying forward unfilled vacancies.
  • Article 17: abolition of untouchability. Article 46: a Directive Principle requiring the State to promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections.
  • Article 335: the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
  • Articles 330 and 332: reservation of seats in the House of the People and in the State Assemblies. Articles 341 and 342: the Presidential Orders specifying the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

The significance, which is what the question asks.

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  1. It is reparative. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes were subjected to untouchability, exclusion from education, from temples, from wells and from land ownership for centuries. Formal equality applied to people made unequal by law for a thousand years simply preserves the inequality.
  2. It gives content to Article 14. Equality means treating likes alike and unlikes differently, and reservation is the application of that principle, not an exception to it, as the Supreme Court has repeatedly said.
  3. It produces representation in the institutions that govern, in the legislature, the services and the professions, which changes what those institutions do and not merely who staffs them.
  4. It is a means of social change, and its effect is visible: literacy, urban employment and political participation among the Scheduled Castes have risen substantially over the period.
  5. It is time-bound in principle. Reservation of seats in the legislatures under Articles 330 and 332 has been extended by amendment every ten years, most recently by the 104th Amendment, 2019, which extended it to 2030 and discontinued the reservation for Anglo-Indians. Reservation is a remedy, not a permanent settlement.

The case law.

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  • State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951): a communal government order reserving seats in colleges was struck down as violating Article 15(1), and Parliament responded with the First Amendment, adding Article 15(4). The case is significant because it shows reservation in education rests on an express constitutional amendment.
  • M. R. Balaji v. State of Mysore (1963): reservation of 68 per cent was struck down; the Court laid down that reservation should ordinarily not exceed 50 per cent, and that caste alone cannot be the test of backwardness.
  • Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), the Mandal case, a Bench of nine judges and the leading authority. It upheld 27 per cent reservation for other backward classes; confirmed the 50 per cent ceiling save in extraordinary situations; excluded the "creamy layer" from the benefit for other backward classes; held that reservation in promotion is not permissible under Article 16(4), which led to the Seventy-seventh Amendment; and held that backwardness must be social and educational, not economic alone.
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  • M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006): upheld Articles 16(4A) and 16(4B), but required the State, before providing reservation in promotion, to collect quantifiable data showing backwardness, inadequacy of representation, and the maintenance of efficiency under Article 335.
  • Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta (2018): modified Nagaraj by holding that the State need not collect data on the backwardness of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, since their backwardness is presumed by their being scheduled, but held that the creamy layer principle applies to them in promotions.
  • Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2022): upheld by four to one the 103rd Amendment, 2019, providing 10 per cent reservation for economically weaker sections, holding that reservation on economic criteria alone does not violate the basic structure and that the EWS quota may exceed the 50 per cent ceiling because it is a separate compartment.

The criticisms, which a full answer must face.

  1. The benefits are captured by the better-off within the community, which is the reason for the creamy layer doctrine and the demand for its consistent application.
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  1. The list has become politically unrevisable. Communities are added and almost never removed, and the demand for inclusion has become an ordinary form of political mobilisation.
  2. The efficiency argument under Article 335, which the Court has repeatedly said must be balanced rather than used as a veto.
  3. It addresses entry and not the conditions that produce inequality. Reservation in a college is of little use to a child who never reached a functioning school, and the honest criticism of Indian reservation policy is that it has been used as a substitute for primary education and land reform rather than as a complement to them.

Conclusion. Reservation is not an exception to equality but the means by which a formally equal Constitution was made to operate on a radically unequal society. Its constitutional foundation is secure and its record is real. What remains contested is not whether it is justified but how it should be targeted, which is precisely the question the creamy layer doctrine, the 50 per cent ceiling and the periodic re-examination of the lists exist to answer.

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18.Trial of Water Rowland.[12]

Answer

(The paper prints "Water Rowland". The trial is that of Walter Graham Rowland, at Manchester in 1946.)

The facts. On 19 October 1946 the body of Olive Balchin was found on a bombed site off Deansgate, Manchester. She had been beaten to death, and a hammer, recently bought, was found beside her. Walter Graham Rowland, a labourer, was charged with her murder.

The trial was held at Manchester Assizes in December 1946. The prosecution case rested on identification and circumstantial evidence:

  1. A shopkeeper identified Rowland as the man to whom he had sold the hammer.
  2. A lodging-house keeper and others identified him as having been in the company of the dead woman.
  3. A taxi driver gave evidence of having driven them.
  4. Forensic evidence was led of blood and of debris on his shoes said to be consistent with the site.

Rowland gave evidence and denied the murder, setting up an alibi. He was convicted and sentenced to death.

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The confession. While Rowland was in the condemned cell, another man, David John Ware, then in prison, confessed in writing to the murder of Olive Balchin, giving an account of it. Rowland's appeal was dismissed, the Court of Criminal Appeal holding that it could not receive the confession as fresh evidence in the ordinary way.

The inquiry. The Home Secretary did not refer the case back to the court. Instead he appointed a private inquiry conducted by a King's Counsel, which heard Ware and others in private, without the accused being represented, without cross-examination, and without the safeguards of a trial, and reported that Ware's confession was untrue and that there was no ground to interfere with the conviction. Ware then retracted his confession.

The execution. Rowland was hanged at Strangeways Prison on 27 February 1947, protesting his innocence to the end and asking that the truth be established one day.

The sequel. In 1951 Ware attacked a woman in Bristol with a hammer and was charged with attempted murder. He said that he had an urge to kill women, and referred to having killed before. He was found guilty but insane and was committed to Broadmoor, where he took his own life in 1954.

Why the case is studied.

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  1. It is the classic English argument against capital punishment. Rowland's execution came at the height of the abolition debate, and the case was cited repeatedly in it. The whole force of the argument is in one sentence: every other error of a criminal court can be corrected, and this one cannot.
  2. It is a study of the weakness of identification evidence. The prosecution case was built on witnesses who identified a stranger seen briefly, and identification by a witness who is honest and mistaken is among the commonest causes of wrongful conviction anywhere.
  3. It is a study of the wrong procedure for a fresh-evidence case. The confession was examined by an executive inquiry and not by a court. There was no cross-examination, no representation for the condemned man, and no public hearing, and the body that decided whether he should live was the same executive that would carry out the sentence. This was one of the pressures that eventually produced a proper statutory route for referring cases back to the appellate court.
  4. It is a study of prejudice from previous conviction. Rowland had earlier been convicted of the murder of his own child and reprieved, and it is impossible to be confident that this did not weigh against him.
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19.Discuss the role played by supreme court in Minoa mills Ltd v/s Union of India for the protection of constitution of India.[12]

Answer

Citation. Minerva Mills Ltd v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789, (1980) 3 SCC 625, a Constitution Bench of five judges. The majority judgment was delivered by Chief Justice Y. V. Chandrachud; Justice P. N. Bhagwati dissented in part.

Facts. Minerva Mills, a textile undertaking at Bangalore, was nationalised under the Sick Textile Undertakings (Nationalisation) Act, 1974, after an inquiry under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951. The petitioners challenged the nationalisation, and in doing so challenged the validity of Sections 4 and 55 of the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976.

What the Forty-second Amendment had done.

  1. Section 4 amended Article 31C so that no law giving effect to any of the Directive Principles in Part IV could be challenged as violating Articles 14, 19 or 31. Before the amendment, Article 31C had protected only laws giving effect to Articles 39(b) and (c).
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  1. Section 55 inserted Articles 368(4) and 368(5), which provided that no constitutional amendment shall be called in question in any court on any ground, and that there shall be no limitation whatever on the constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

What the Court held.

1. Clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368 are void. The Court held that the amending power of Parliament under Article 368 is a limited power, and that limitation is itself a basic feature of the Constitution. Parliament cannot, by exercising that limited power, convert it into an unlimited one; "a limited amending power is one of the basic features of the Constitution and, therefore, the limitations on that power cannot be destroyed." Since judicial review is the means by which the limitation is enforced, a clause excluding review of amendments destroys the basic structure. This restored Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), which clause (5) had been designed to nullify.

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2. Section 4, amending Article 31C, is void. The Court held that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is itself part of the basic structure. Parts III and IV together are the "conscience of the Constitution", and the goals set out in Part IV are to be achieved without abrogating the means provided by Part III. To give every Directive Principle primacy over Articles 14 and 19 would mean that any law which recited a Directive Principle would be immune from challenge, and "the Constitution would be robbed of its identity." Article 31C therefore stands as it was before 1976, protecting only laws giving effect to Articles 39(b) and (c).

The famous formulation. Chandrachud C.J. put the relationship in an image that is quoted in every textbook: the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Parts III and IV, and to give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. He added that the Constitution is a precious heritage and therefore you cannot destroy its identity, and that "three Articles of our Constitution, and only three, stand between the heaven of freedom into which Tagore wanted his country to awake and the abyss of unrestrained power": Articles 14, 19 and 21.

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Justice Bhagwati's partial dissent agreed that clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368 were void, but held that the amended Article 31C was valid, on the view that a law genuinely giving effect to a Directive Principle could not be said to be arbitrary or unreasonable.

The role the Court played in protecting the Constitution.

  1. It preserved the basic structure doctrine at the moment it was under direct attack. Clause (5) of Article 368 was drafted expressly to overrule Kesavananda. Had it stood, there would have been no limit on the amending power, and every other guarantee would have been provisional.
  2. It preserved judicial review, without which the basic structure doctrine would be a statement with no machinery behind it. Judicial review is the enforcement mechanism of every constitutional limitation, which is why the Court treated its exclusion as fatal.
  3. It preserved the constitutional balance between rights and directive principles, refusing to let either swallow the other.
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  1. It confirmed that a limited power cannot enlarge itself. This is the reasoning that gives the doctrine its logical foundation: the Constitution created Parliament, and the creature cannot rewrite the terms of its own creation.
  2. It completed the correction of the Emergency-era amendments, together with the Forty-fourth Amendment of 1978, which had already removed the right to property from Part III and restored other safeguards.
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Colophon

This volume prints the 2023-24 - ATKT 60/40 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 19 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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