Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2025-26 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2½ hours · Total marks 75 · 21 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in one or two sentences
Any Six · 12 Marks
Answer
A letter is written by Ann.
Answer
The train was late, wasn't it?
Answer
Ex parte is Latin for "from one side" or "on behalf of one party only". It describes a proceeding taken in the absence of, and without hearing, the other party.
Its two commonest uses are:
Answer
| Element | What it means |
|---|---|
| Young Lawyers Association | The first-named party, the petitioner. The case is properly cited as Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala. |
| v. | Versus, "against". |
| State of Kerala | The respondent. |
| AIR | All India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed. |
| 2018 | The year of the volume in which it appears. |
| SC | Supreme Court, so the decision binds every court in India under Article 141 of the Constitution. |
| 1690 | The page of that volume at which the report begins. |
Answer
Welfare legislation, also called beneficial or remedial legislation, is a statute enacted for the benefit and protection of a particular class of persons who are at a disadvantage, so as to remedy a wrong, redress an inequality of bargaining power, or confer a benefit or a new remedy which the class did not previously have.
Rule of construction: welfare legislation is construed liberally, so as to advance the benefit and suppress the mischief, and where two constructions are reasonably possible the one that favours the class the statute was passed to protect is preferred.
Examples: the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961; the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923; the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947; the Minimum Wages Act, 1948; the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005; and the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
Answer
Section 3(13) of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides that "commencement", used with reference to an Act or Regulation, shall mean the day on which the Act or Regulation comes into force.
It must be read with Section 5, which supplies the default: where a Central Act is not expressed to come into operation on a particular day, it comes into operation on the day it receives the assent of the President, or, for a Central Act made before the Constitution, of the Governor General.
Answer
A "wrong" is the wider term: any violation of a legal right or breach of a legal duty. It includes civil wrongs, such as a tort or a breach of contract, for which the remedy is compensation or specific relief at the suit of the injured person, and criminal wrongs, which are offences.
An "offence" is any act or omission made punishable by law for the time being in force, which is the definition in Section 3(38) of the General Clauses Act, 1897. An offence is a public wrong: it is prosecuted by the State, and the consequence is punishment.
Every offence is a wrong; not every wrong is an offence.
Answer
External aids are materials outside the four corners of the Act which a court may use to ascertain the meaning of its words, and it uses them only where the statute is ambiguous and only after exhausting the internal aids. Any two of these:
(1) Dictionaries. Where a word is not defined in the Act, the court may consult a dictionary to find its ordinary meaning. Two cautions apply: a dictionary gives every meaning a word can bear and the context must choose between them; and a technical or commercial word takes the meaning the trade gives it, not the dictionary's, which is why sugarcane was held not to be a "green vegetable" for a sales tax exemption in Motipur Zamindary Co. v. State of Bihar.
(2) The Statement of Objects and Reasons. Admissible to show the circumstances in which the Bill was introduced and the mischief it was meant to remedy, but not to construe the words of the Act, because it accompanies the Bill and may not reflect what was finally enacted.
Others available: statutes in pari materia, that is, statutes on the same subject, read together as one system; the General Clauses Act, 1897, whose definitions and rules are read into every Central Act; parliamentary debates and committee and Law Commission reports; historical facts and surrounding circumstances; contemporanea expositio, the meaning given by those who administered the Act from the beginning; textbooks and commentaries; foreign decisions; and international conventions.
Write Short Notes on
Any Two · 12 Marks
Answer
Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision considered of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the arguments, the judgment of the court and the order made, edited and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent in later cases.
A law report is not the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, and not a transcript, which is a verbatim note. It is selective and edited: only a small fraction of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus which the judgment does not contain.
Why they exist. The doctrine of precedent requires that like cases be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found, so law reporting is the machinery that makes precedent workable.
Contents of a properly reported case, in order: the court and the names of the judges; the parties and the date; catchwords and a headnote, written by the editor; the cases cited; the counsel who appeared; the facts and procedural history; the judgments verbatim, including any dissent; and the order with costs.
The principal Indian reports.
| Report | Publisher | Since | Covers | Citation form |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Indian Law Reports (ILR) | State Governments, under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875. Official | 1875 | High Courts | ILR 30 Cal 539 |
| Supreme Court Reports (SCR) | Under the authority of the Supreme Court. Official | 1950 | Supreme Court | (1978) 2 SCR 621 |
| Report | Publisher | Since | Covers | Citation form |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| All India Reporter (AIR) | Private, Nagpur, founded by V. V. Chitaley | 1914 | Supreme Court, High Courts, formerly the Privy Council | AIR 2018 SC 1690 |
| Supreme Court Cases (SCC) | Private, Eastern Book Company, Lucknow | 1969 | Supreme Court | (1997) 6 SCC 241 |
Specialist reports include the Criminal Law Journal (Cri LJ), Income Tax Reports (ITR), Divorce and Matrimonial Cases (DMC), the Labour Law Journal (LLJ) and Calcutta Weekly Notes (CWN).
The two citation conventions, which decode any Indian citation: AIR puts the year first without brackets and needs no volume number, because it paginates each court's volume continuously through the year; SCC and SCR put the year in brackets and then the volume, because they publish several numbered volumes a year. If the year is in brackets, the number after it is a volume; if the year is bare, the number after the court is a page.
Answer
The rule. The golden rule permits a court to depart from the literal meaning of the words of a statute where a literal reading would lead to an absurdity, a repugnance or an inconsistency with the rest of the statute, and to modify the words so far as is necessary to avoid that result, but no further.
The classical statement is that of Lord Wensleydale in Grey v. Pearson (1857): "the grammatical and ordinary sense of the words is to be adhered to, unless that would lead to some absurdity, or some repugnance or inconsistency with the rest of the instrument, in which case the grammatical and ordinary sense of the words may be modified, so as to avoid that absurdity and inconsistency, but no farther." Because Lord Wensleydale used it so often it was known as Baron Parke's golden rule.
Its two applications:
Illustrations.
Answer
The maxim, from Cicero's De Legibus, means "the welfare (or safety) of the people is the supreme law." It expresses the principle that the interest of the community prevails over the interest of the individual, and that where the two conflict the law prefers the public good.
It is habitually paired with necessitas publica major est quam privata, "public necessity is greater than private necessity". Together they are the classical foundation of the state's power to interfere with private right for a public purpose.
Where it operates:
Answer
Noscitur a sociis means "a word is known by the company it keeps." It is a rule of language: where a word of doubtful meaning appears in a statute alongside other words, it takes its colour and meaning from the words associated with it, and is construed as belonging to the same general idea.
The rule rests on a simple assumption about drafting: a legislature does not place unrelated things in one list. If a doubtful word is found in a list of things which have something in common, the natural inference is that the doubtful word shares it.
Illustrations from decided cases:
Its limits.
Answer Any Two of the following 12 Marks
Answer
10 of 1994) [8th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Court for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows: - CHAPTER -I : Preliminary
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Official Citation | "(Act No. 10 of 1994)", the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment. |
| (ii) Long Title | "An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Court for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." |
| (iii) Date of Commencement | 28th September, 1993. Section 1(3): the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993." |
| (iv) Date of Assent | 8th January, 1994, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act, being the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution. |
Answer
While road capacity has increased by less than 2.5% over the past two decades, the number of vehicles has been rising at an annual rate of over 10%, reaching nearly 12 million vehicles on 3.5 million kilometres of roads. Vehicular emissions account for up to 70% of carbon monoxide, 50% of hydrocarbons, and 30% of particulate matter in urban air, leading to serious health problems such as asthma and lung cancer.
Older vehicles - those over ten years old - are responsible for nearly 60% of vehicular pollution due to poor maintenance, outdated technology, and the absence of effective scrappage norms. The use of adulterated fuel further aggravates emission levels.
Although small cars and two-wheelers once dominated India's vehicle market due to lower income levels, rising affluence has increased demand for larger, more fuel-intensive vehicles. This trend underscores the urgent need for stricter vehicle and fuel standards.
One effective policy measure could be the introduction of progressive taxation on the purchase of second, third, and subsequent vehicles to discourage excessive private vehicle ownership and curb pollution.
(i) Give an appropriate title to the passage. According to the CPCB, what are the main reasons for increasing air pollution in India's major cities?
Title: "Vehicles and Urban Air: India's Growing Pollution Problem."
(Equally acceptable: "Too Many Vehicles, Too Little Road" or "Curbing Vehicular Pollution in Indian Cities".)
The main reasons, as the passage gives them:
The passage concludes that this underscores the urgent need for stricter vehicle and fuel standards.
(ii) How could progressive taxation on the purchase of multiple vehicles help reduce urban air pollution and promote sustainable transport?
The passage itself proposes it: progressive taxation on the purchase of second, third and subsequent vehicles, to discourage excessive private vehicle ownership and curb pollution. How it would work:
The qualifications, which a good answer states. The tax must not be so high as to be confiscatory, or it will simply be evaded by registering vehicles in other names or in other States; taxes on vehicles are a State subject, so uniformity across States is a real difficulty; and a tax that reduces vehicle ownership without improving public transport transfers hardship rather than reducing pollution.
Answer
(i) Yes. Yami's action is an "advertisement" within the definition.
Apply the definition to the facts, element by element:
So Yami's billboard is an advertisement, and the consequences follow. He becomes subject to the provisions of the Act dealing with misleading advertisements, that is, an advertisement which falsely describes a product, gives a false guarantee, conveys an express or implied representation that would constitute an unfair trade practice, or deliberately conceals important information. The Central Consumer Protection Authority may order the discontinuance of a misleading advertisement, order a corrective advertisement, and impose a penalty on the manufacturer or the endorser; and for a skin product the claims made are exactly the kind the Authority scrutinises.
(ii) The applicable rule is EJUSDEM GENERIS, "of the same kind".
The rule. Where general words follow an enumeration of specific things which constitute a genus or class, the general words are construed as limited to things of the same class.
Why it applies here. The five conditions are satisfied:
The consequence. "Or such other documents" is confined to documents of the same kind as a notice, circular, label, wrapper or invoice: for example a brochure, a leaflet, a pamphlet, a price list, a warranty card, a packaging insert, a catalogue or a receipt. It would not extend to a document of a wholly different character, such as a private letter, a company's internal memorandum, or a pleading in a court.
Two refinements worth a line each.
Answer
(i) No. Diya is not a legal heir during her father's lifetime, and her claim of ownership is bad.
Nemo est haeres viventis means "no one is the heir of a living person." Heirship is determined only at the moment of death, so during a person's lifetime nobody can be called his heir. Those who would inherit if he died today are only heirs apparent or heirs presumptive, and what they have is a mere expectation, called a spes successionis, a chance of succession, and not a right.
Three consequences follow on these facts:
So the sale to Aman, made during the father's lifetime, transferred nothing. Diya had no interest to convey, and a transfer of a mere expectancy is void, not merely voidable.
(ii) After the father's death, whether Aman can enforce the sale depends on what Aman knew, and the answer turns on Section 43.
Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the doctrine of "feeding the grant by estoppel", provides that where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property, and professes to transfer it for consideration, the transfer shall, at the option of the transferee, operate on any interest which the transferor may acquire in that property at any time during which the contract of transfer subsists.
The two provisions appear to conflict, and the conflict is the point of the question. Section 6(a) says a chance of succession cannot be transferred at all; Section 43 says an after-acquired interest may feed a transfer made on an erroneous representation.
The reconciliation is settled by Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah (1962), in which the Supreme Court held that the two sections operate in different fields:
Applying that to Diya and Aman:
On the facts as stated, the second is the more likely case, and Aman can enforce the sale after the father's death.
Aman's alternative remedies, if Section 43 is unavailable to him: a suit against Diya for the return of the price with interest, and for damages for breach of the covenant of title implied in a sale; and, where the representation was fraudulent, an action for deceit.
Answer in detail
Any three · 39 Marks
Answer
A statute has a settled architecture, and each part has a recognised weight when a court comes to construe it. The parts found within the Act are the internal aids to construction.
1. The short title. The name by which the Act is cited: "This Act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993". Function in interpretation: none. It is a label for convenience and cannot control the meaning of any section.
2. The official citation. The number of the Act in the year of enactment, "Act No. 10 of 1994". A means of unique identification, with no interpretative value; but it is the number, not the name, that is unique, because several Acts a year carry confusable names.
3. The long title. The sentence beginning "An Act to ...", stating the general purpose and scope. Function: it is part of the Act and may legitimately be used to ascertain the general object where a provision is ambiguous. The older English view that the title was no part of the Act has been abandoned; but it cannot control clear enacting words.
4. The preamble. A recital beginning "WHEREAS ...", setting out the reasons for the legislation. Function: it is a key to the mind of the legislature and may be used to resolve an ambiguity, but where the enacting part is clear and unambiguous the preamble cannot cut it down or extend it. Most modern Indian Acts have none; the outstanding example that does is the Preamble to the Constitution, held to be part of it in Kesavananda Bharati (1973).
5. The enacting formula. "BE it enacted by Parliament in the ... Year of the Republic of India as follows". Function: it declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text into law. It has no role in construing individual sections.
6. Marginal notes. The short headings printed against each section. Function: contested. The old English rule excluded them, since they are inserted by the draftsman and are not voted on. Indian courts will look at a marginal note as an aid where the section is ambiguous, but it can never prevail over the plain words.
7. Headings and chapter titles, such as "CHAPTER I: Preliminary". Function: they may be referred to in construing the sections grouped under them, as a preamble to that group, but cannot restrict a section's plain meaning.
8. The definition or interpretation clause. Function: decisive. A definition governs the whole Act "unless the context otherwise requires", and those words matter: a defined meaning yields where the context of a particular section demands otherwise. Note the drafting signals: "means" introduces an exhaustive definition; "includes" an extending one; "means and includes" an exhaustive definition framed widely.
9. Provisos. Clauses beginning "Provided that". Function: a proviso carves an exception out of the provision to which it is attached. Its normal office is to except something that would otherwise fall within the main clause; it must be read with that clause and cannot be construed as enlarging the section.
10. Explanations. Function: to explain or clarify the section, remove a doubt, or fill a gap. An explanation neither enlarges nor curtails the section; it makes plain what the section already contains.
11. Exceptions and saving clauses. An exception exempts what would otherwise be within the section. A saving clause preserves rights, obligations or proceedings which would otherwise be destroyed, most often on a repeal, and is read with Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897.
12. Schedules. Function: schedules are part of the Act and have the same force as the sections. They carry detail, forms, lists and rules which would clutter the body. Where a section and a schedule conflict, the section prevails.
13. Illustrations. Found in the older codes, the Contract Act, the Evidence Act, the Penal Code. Function: they are part of the statute and are valuable as showing how the legislature intended the section to apply, but they cannot modify its language.
14. Punctuation. Function: of little weight. Older statutes were enrolled without punctuation, and the rule is that punctuation may be looked at but cannot control the plain meaning.
15. The non obstante clause. "Notwithstanding anything contained in ...". Function: to give the provision overriding effect over whatever it names; the standard device for resolving a conflict in advance.
16. The repeal and savings section, usually the last in the Act.
Answer
What artificial intelligence is. AI is the capability of a computer system to perform tasks that ordinarily require human intelligence: learning from data, reasoning, recognising patterns, understanding and generating natural language, and making predictions. What exists today is narrow AI, built for particular tasks; machine learning is the branch in which a system learns rules from data rather than being programmed with them, and generative AI the branch that produces new text.
WHERE IT HAS ALREADY CHANGED LEGAL WORK.
THE RISKS, WHICH MUST OCCUPY AT LEAST A THIRD OF THE ANSWER.
THE LINE THE LAW HAS DRAWN. AI may assist; it may not decide. Indian courts have used it as a reference tool and have said expressly that such use is for reference only and forms no part of the reasoning. That is right in principle for a reason that goes beyond technology: judicial discretion is a responsibility placed on a person who is accountable, must give reasons, and can be appealed against. A machine has none of those attributes, and the day it did, it would be a judge and not a tool.
Conclusion. The impact of artificial intelligence on the legal field is that it removes the mechanical part of legal work, and the mechanical part is most of it. Searching, translating, reviewing, summarising and drafting are all tasks it does faster and more cheaply than a person, and in a system with India's pendency and India's language barrier that is not a marginal gain. What it cannot do is judge, because judgment means weighing incommensurable considerations and answering for the result. The right posture is neither refusal nor delegation but supervised use: the machine drafts and the lawyer verifies; the machine sorts and the judge decides.
Answer
Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.
Facts. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker employed in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. In the course of her work she attempted to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a village family, and in 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. She met obstruction at every stage: the police were reluctant to record the complaint and the medical examination was delayed, and in 1995 the trial court acquitted the accused. The State's appeal against that acquittal has remained pending in the Rajasthan High Court.
A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, together with other social activists and non-governmental organisations, as a class action in the public interest, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain a general remedy: a declaration that sexual harassment at the workplace violates fundamental rights, and directions to protect working women. The petitioners' point was that Bhanwari Devi was attacked because of her work, and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.
Issues.
The decision.
The guidelines.
Aftermath. The guidelines were applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999), where the Supreme Court upheld the dismissal of a superior who had molested a subordinate and again relied on international norms, and in Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013), where the Court found compliance inadequate and issued further directions. Sixteen years after the judgment, Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, in force from 9 December 2013, which now governs the field: it requires an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees, a Local Committee in each district for the unorganised sector and smaller establishments, and it prescribes the inquiry procedure, time limits, interim reliefs and penalties.
Answer
(The paper prints "Actus de nemini facit injuriam". The maxim is actus Dei nemini facit injuriam.)
The maxim means "an act of God does injury to no one", that is, no person is held liable in law for a loss caused by an act of God, because the loss is caused by natural forces for which no human being is answerable.
What an "act of God" is. An event due to natural causes, directly and exclusively, without human intervention, which could not have been prevented by any amount of foresight, pains and care reasonably to be expected. It is also called vis major, "a greater force", in Roman and English law, and damnum fatale, "loss by fate", in Scots law.
The two essential ingredients, and both must be established:
The second is where most defences fail. Rain is not an act of God; rain of a quantity never recorded before may be. Ordinary storms, ordinary high tides and ordinary frost are all foreseeable, and a defendant who fails to provide against them is negligent, not unlucky.
THE CASE LAW.
WHERE THE MAXIM OPERATES.
THE CRUCIAL LIMIT: absolute liability. The defence is not available at all against the rule of absolute liability laid down in M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Oleum Gas Leak case, under which an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is liable for harm resulting from it without any of the exceptions that qualify strict liability. A chemical plant cannot answer a gas escape by pleading an earthquake.
Answer
What a presumption is. In interpreting a statute a court starts from certain assumptions about what the legislature intended, which hold good unless the statute displaces them expressly or by necessary implication. They are not rules of law but starting points, and they place the burden of argument on the party contending for the contrary.
THE PRESUMPTIONS.
1. That a statute is constitutional and valid. A statute enacted by a competent legislature is presumed valid, and the burden of showing that it is unconstitutional lies on the challenger. The court leans in favour of validity and will read down a provision to save it. The legislature is presumed to understand and correctly appreciate the needs of its own people: Charanjit Lal Chowdhury v. Union of India (1951) and Ram Krishna Dalmia v. Justice S. R. Tendolkar (1958). This is linked to the maxim ut res magis valeat quam pereat, that a construction which upholds a provision is preferred to one which destroys it, and to the doctrine of severability: R. M. D. Chamarbaugwalla v. Union of India (1957).
2. That a statute is prospective and not retrospective. Nova constitutio futuris formam imponere debet, non praeteritis: a new law regulates what is to follow, not the past. A statute is construed as prospective unless it says otherwise expressly or by necessary implication. Exceptions: procedural statutes are presumed retrospective, because no one has a vested right in a form of procedure; and declaratory and curative statutes are retrospective, because they state what the law always was. Article 20(1) puts an absolute bar on retrospective criminal liability. Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay (1951).
3. That the legislature knows the existing law and does not intend to alter it further than it says. A statute is presumed not to change the existing law, whether statutory or common law, beyond what its words require, and not to take away vested rights without clear words. It follows that implied repeal is not favoured, and that where a general Act and an earlier special Act cover the same ground the special prevails: generalia specialibus non derogant.
4. That the legislature does not intend what is unjust, inconvenient, unreasonable or absurd. This is the foundation of the golden rule, and it permits a court to modify the literal meaning where it would produce such a result, but no further: Grey v. Pearson (1857).
5. That words are used in their ordinary and popular sense, unless the statute is addressed to a particular trade or profession, in which case they bear the meaning the trade gives them: Motipur Zamindary Co. v. State of Bihar, where sugarcane was held not to be a "green vegetable".
6. That every word has a purpose and none is superfluous. A construction which renders a word, a phrase or a provision otiose is to be avoided, and a court should give effect to the whole of the statute.
7. That the legislature does not intend to exceed its jurisdiction. A statute is presumed not to have extra-territorial operation, and not to violate the distribution of legislative powers in the Seventh Schedule; a construction that keeps the Act within the competence of the legislature is preferred. Note the qualification in Article 245(2), that a law of Parliament is not invalid merely because it has extra-territorial operation.
8. That mens rea is an ingredient of a criminal offence unless it is excluded expressly or by necessary implication: State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George. This is the presumption behind the strict construction of penal statutes and the maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.
9. That the jurisdiction of the civil courts is not ousted except by clear words or necessary implication, and that a provision purporting to exclude judicial review is construed narrowly. This follows from the constitutional position that judicial review is part of the basic structure: Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980).
10. That a statute is exhaustive on the subject with which it deals, so that a code is presumed to contain the whole of the law on its topic and is not to be supplemented from outside.
11. That the legislature does not intend to violate international law or India's treaty obligations, so that a construction consistent with a convention India has ratified is preferred: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).
12. Omnia praesumuntur rite esse acta: official acts are presumed to have been regularly and correctly performed, and a public officer is presumed to have acted within his authority, until the contrary is shown.
13. That a remedy is not taken away without an alternative, and that where a right is created a remedy is intended, which is ubi jus ibi remedium operating as a presumption.
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This volume prints the 2025-26 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.
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11 August 2026.
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