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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2025-26 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2025-26 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 examination.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2½ hours  ·  Total marks 75  ·  21 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • Note: 1) Please check whether you have got the right question paper
  • 2) Total marks are indicated on the right side of the paper

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer in one or two sentences

Any Six · 12 Marks

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1.Ann writes a letter. (Change the voice)[2]

Answer

A letter is written by Ann.

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2.The train was late. (Add a question tag)[2]

Answer

The train was late, wasn't it?

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3.Explain Ex- Parte.[2]

Answer

Ex parte is Latin for "from one side" or "on behalf of one party only". It describes a proceeding taken in the absence of, and without hearing, the other party.

Its two commonest uses are:

  • An ex parte decree or order, passed against a defendant who, having been duly served, fails to appear, so that the suit is heard in his absence. Under Order IX Rule 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court may proceed ex parte, and under Order IX Rule 13 the defendant may apply to have the decree set aside on showing that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing.
  • An ex parte injunction, granted on the application of one party alone, before notice to the other, where the object of granting it would be defeated by delay. Order XXXIX Rule 3 requires the court to record its reasons for proceeding without notice and to require the applicant to deliver the papers to the other side at once.
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4.Explain the citation: Young Lawyers Association v. the State of Kerala, AIR 2018 SC 1690.[2]

Answer

ElementWhat it means
Young Lawyers AssociationThe first-named party, the petitioner. The case is properly cited as Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala.
v.Versus, "against".
State of KeralaThe respondent.
AIRAll India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed.
2018The year of the volume in which it appears.
SCSupreme Court, so the decision binds every court in India under Article 141 of the Constitution.
1690The page of that volume at which the report begins.
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5.Explain Welfare legislation.[2]

Answer

Welfare legislation, also called beneficial or remedial legislation, is a statute enacted for the benefit and protection of a particular class of persons who are at a disadvantage, so as to remedy a wrong, redress an inequality of bargaining power, or confer a benefit or a new remedy which the class did not previously have.

Rule of construction: welfare legislation is construed liberally, so as to advance the benefit and suppress the mischief, and where two constructions are reasonably possible the one that favours the class the statute was passed to protect is preferred.

Examples: the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961; the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923; the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947; the Minimum Wages Act, 1948; the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005; and the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

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6.Define "Commencement" under General Clauses Act 1897.[2]

Answer

Section 3(13) of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides that "commencement", used with reference to an Act or Regulation, shall mean the day on which the Act or Regulation comes into force.

It must be read with Section 5, which supplies the default: where a Central Act is not expressed to come into operation on a particular day, it comes into operation on the day it receives the assent of the President, or, for a Central Act made before the Constitution, of the Governor General.

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7.Differentiate between the legal concepts Wrong and Offence.[2]

Answer

A "wrong" is the wider term: any violation of a legal right or breach of a legal duty. It includes civil wrongs, such as a tort or a breach of contract, for which the remedy is compensation or specific relief at the suit of the injured person, and criminal wrongs, which are offences.

An "offence" is any act or omission made punishable by law for the time being in force, which is the definition in Section 3(38) of the General Clauses Act, 1897. An offence is a public wrong: it is prosecuted by the State, and the consequence is punishment.

Every offence is a wrong; not every wrong is an offence.

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8.Describe any two External Aids of Interpretation.[2]

Answer

External aids are materials outside the four corners of the Act which a court may use to ascertain the meaning of its words, and it uses them only where the statute is ambiguous and only after exhausting the internal aids. Any two of these:

(1) Dictionaries. Where a word is not defined in the Act, the court may consult a dictionary to find its ordinary meaning. Two cautions apply: a dictionary gives every meaning a word can bear and the context must choose between them; and a technical or commercial word takes the meaning the trade gives it, not the dictionary's, which is why sugarcane was held not to be a "green vegetable" for a sales tax exemption in Motipur Zamindary Co. v. State of Bihar.

(2) The Statement of Objects and Reasons. Admissible to show the circumstances in which the Bill was introduced and the mischief it was meant to remedy, but not to construe the words of the Act, because it accompanies the Bill and may not reflect what was finally enacted.

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Others available: statutes in pari materia, that is, statutes on the same subject, read together as one system; the General Clauses Act, 1897, whose definitions and rules are read into every Central Act; parliamentary debates and committee and Law Commission reports; historical facts and surrounding circumstances; contemporanea expositio, the meaning given by those who administered the Act from the beginning; textbooks and commentaries; foreign decisions; and international conventions.

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SECTION II

Write Short Notes on

Any Two · 12 Marks

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9.Law reports[6]

Answer

Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision considered of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the arguments, the judgment of the court and the order made, edited and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent in later cases.

A law report is not the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, and not a transcript, which is a verbatim note. It is selective and edited: only a small fraction of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus which the judgment does not contain.

Why they exist. The doctrine of precedent requires that like cases be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found, so law reporting is the machinery that makes precedent workable.

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Contents of a properly reported case, in order: the court and the names of the judges; the parties and the date; catchwords and a headnote, written by the editor; the cases cited; the counsel who appeared; the facts and procedural history; the judgments verbatim, including any dissent; and the order with costs.

The principal Indian reports.

ReportPublisherSinceCoversCitation form
Indian Law Reports (ILR)State Governments, under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875. Official1875High CourtsILR 30 Cal 539
Supreme Court Reports (SCR)Under the authority of the Supreme Court. Official1950Supreme Court(1978) 2 SCR 621
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ReportPublisherSinceCoversCitation form
All India Reporter (AIR)Private, Nagpur, founded by V. V. Chitaley1914Supreme Court, High Courts, formerly the Privy CouncilAIR 2018 SC 1690
Supreme Court Cases (SCC)Private, Eastern Book Company, Lucknow1969Supreme Court(1997) 6 SCC 241

Specialist reports include the Criminal Law Journal (Cri LJ), Income Tax Reports (ITR), Divorce and Matrimonial Cases (DMC), the Labour Law Journal (LLJ) and Calcutta Weekly Notes (CWN).

The two citation conventions, which decode any Indian citation: AIR puts the year first without brackets and needs no volume number, because it paginates each court's volume continuously through the year; SCC and SCR put the year in brackets and then the volume, because they publish several numbered volumes a year. If the year is in brackets, the number after it is a volume; if the year is bare, the number after the court is a page.

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10.Golden Rule of Interpretation of Statutes[6]

Answer

The rule. The golden rule permits a court to depart from the literal meaning of the words of a statute where a literal reading would lead to an absurdity, a repugnance or an inconsistency with the rest of the statute, and to modify the words so far as is necessary to avoid that result, but no further.

The classical statement is that of Lord Wensleydale in Grey v. Pearson (1857): "the grammatical and ordinary sense of the words is to be adhered to, unless that would lead to some absurdity, or some repugnance or inconsistency with the rest of the instrument, in which case the grammatical and ordinary sense of the words may be modified, so as to avoid that absurdity and inconsistency, but no farther." Because Lord Wensleydale used it so often it was known as Baron Parke's golden rule.

Its two applications:

  1. The narrow application, where a word is ambiguous and has two possible meanings: the court chooses the meaning that avoids the absurdity.
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  1. The wide application, where the words have only one meaning but that meaning produces a result so absurd or repugnant that the legislature cannot have intended it: the court modifies the words to prevent it.

Illustrations.

  • Lee v. Knapp: a statute required a driver involved in an accident to "stop". Read literally, a driver who halted for a moment and drove away had stopped. The court held that the word must be read as requiring him to stop for such time as would enable persons with a right to do so to obtain the information the statute contemplated. Literal compliance would have defeated the section entirely.
  • Tirath Singh v. Bachittar Singh: a provision requiring notice to be given to "all persons named in the petition as having been guilty of a corrupt practice" was read as not requiring notice to the petitioner's own opponent, who was already before the court, because the literal reading would have produced a plainly unintended result.
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  • Ramji Missar v. State of Bihar: the age of the offender for the purpose of the Probation of Offenders Act was determined by reference to the date of the decision of the trial court rather than a literal reading which would have defeated the object of the Act.
  • The classical English illustration of the absurdity the rule exists to prevent is Whiteley v. Chappell, where a statute made it an offence to impersonate "any person entitled to vote", and the accused impersonated a dead man; on a literal reading a dead man is not entitled to vote, and the accused was acquitted. The letter was obeyed and the purpose defeated.
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11.Salus Populi Est Suprema Lex[6]

Answer

The maxim, from Cicero's De Legibus, means "the welfare (or safety) of the people is the supreme law." It expresses the principle that the interest of the community prevails over the interest of the individual, and that where the two conflict the law prefers the public good.

It is habitually paired with necessitas publica major est quam privata, "public necessity is greater than private necessity". Together they are the classical foundation of the state's power to interfere with private right for a public purpose.

Where it operates:

  1. Eminent domain, the compulsory acquisition of private property for a public purpose on payment of compensation, now under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013.
  2. The police power of the state: public health, sanitation, town planning, drug control, licensing and the regulation of dangerous or offensive trades.
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  1. Necessity as a defence in tort: damage done to private property to avert a greater public harm, the classic case being the pulling down of a house to stop a fire spreading, is not actionable.
  2. Public nuisance, where the use of one's own land is restrained because it injures the public at large. Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand (1980) is the Indian illustration: a municipality cannot plead lack of funds to escape its statutory duty to abate a public nuisance.
  3. Emergency powers and preventive detention, where personal liberty yields to the security of the state.
  4. The reasonable restrictions permitted on the freedoms in Article 19(2) to (6), and the Directive Principles, which direct the State to secure a social order for the welfare of the people.
  5. As a rule of interpretation, which is what this paper is about, it underlies beneficial construction and the mischief rule: a statute passed for the public good is construed so as to advance that good and suppress the mischief.
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12.Noscitur a sociis[6]

Answer

Noscitur a sociis means "a word is known by the company it keeps." It is a rule of language: where a word of doubtful meaning appears in a statute alongside other words, it takes its colour and meaning from the words associated with it, and is construed as belonging to the same general idea.

The rule rests on a simple assumption about drafting: a legislature does not place unrelated things in one list. If a doubtful word is found in a list of things which have something in common, the natural inference is that the doubtful word shares it.

Illustrations from decided cases:

  • State of Bombay v. Hospital Mazdoor Sabha (1960): the definition of "industry" in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, referred to "trade, business, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers". The Supreme Court applied noscitur a sociis to the word "undertaking", holding that it must be read as taking colour from the words with which it was associated, and so as meaning an undertaking analogous to a trade or business.
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  • Alamgir v. State of Bihar (1959): the word "detains" in the section penalising the detention of a married woman was construed in the light of the accompanying words "takes or entices away or conceals", and was held not to require physical force.
  • Rainbow Steels Ltd v. Commissioner of Sales Tax (1981): the expression "old, discarded, unserviceable or obsolete machinery" was construed by reading "old" with the words around it, so that "old" meant machinery which had become unfit for use, not merely machinery which had been used for a period.
  • Devendra M. Surti v. State of Gujarat (1969): the expression "commercial establishment", defined to include "an establishment which carries on any business, trade or profession", was construed so that "profession" took colour from "business" and "trade", and a doctor's private dispensary was held to be outside it.

Its limits.

  1. It applies only where the word is of doubtful meaning. If the word is clear, its associates cannot cut it down.
  2. It does not apply where the words are plainly meant to be disparate, that is, where the list is deliberately a list of unlike things.
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  1. It yields to a contrary intention appearing from the statute.
  2. It is a rule of construction and not of law, and, in the Supreme Court's phrase, it is "merely a rule of construction and it cannot prevail where it is clear that the wider words have been deliberately used."
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SECTION III

Answer Any Two of the following 12 Marks

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13.Answer the following questions with respect to the legislative extract given below: THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS ACT, 1993 (Act No.[6]

  • 1. Short title, extent and commencement. -
  • (1) This Act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India
  • (3) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993 Identify the following: - i. Official Citation ii. Long Title iii. Date of Commencement iv. Date of Assent

Answer

10 of 1994) [8th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Court for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows: - CHAPTER -I : Preliminary

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Official Citation"(Act No. 10 of 1994)", the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment.
(ii) Long Title"An Act to provide for the constitution of National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Court for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto."
(iii) Date of Commencement28th September, 1993. Section 1(3): the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993."
(iv) Date of Assent8th January, 1994, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act, being the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution.
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14.Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: India's rapid growth in vehicle numbers, combined with inadequate expansion of road infrastructure, has resulted in severe air pollution in major cities, according to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).[6]

  • i. Give an appropriate title to the passage. According to the CPCB, what are the main reasons for increasing air pollution in India's major cities?
  • ii. How could progressive taxation on the purchase of multiple vehicles help reduce urban air pollution and promote sustainable transport in India?

Answer

While road capacity has increased by less than 2.5% over the past two decades, the number of vehicles has been rising at an annual rate of over 10%, reaching nearly 12 million vehicles on 3.5 million kilometres of roads. Vehicular emissions account for up to 70% of carbon monoxide, 50% of hydrocarbons, and 30% of particulate matter in urban air, leading to serious health problems such as asthma and lung cancer.

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Older vehicles - those over ten years old - are responsible for nearly 60% of vehicular pollution due to poor maintenance, outdated technology, and the absence of effective scrappage norms. The use of adulterated fuel further aggravates emission levels.

Although small cars and two-wheelers once dominated India's vehicle market due to lower income levels, rising affluence has increased demand for larger, more fuel-intensive vehicles. This trend underscores the urgent need for stricter vehicle and fuel standards.

One effective policy measure could be the introduction of progressive taxation on the purchase of second, third, and subsequent vehicles to discourage excessive private vehicle ownership and curb pollution.

(i) Give an appropriate title to the passage. According to the CPCB, what are the main reasons for increasing air pollution in India's major cities?

Title: "Vehicles and Urban Air: India's Growing Pollution Problem."

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(Equally acceptable: "Too Many Vehicles, Too Little Road" or "Curbing Vehicular Pollution in Indian Cities".)

The main reasons, as the passage gives them:

  1. Rapid growth in vehicle numbers combined with inadequate expansion of road infrastructure. Road capacity has increased by less than 2.5 per cent over the past two decades, while the number of vehicles has been rising at over 10 per cent a year, reaching nearly 12 million vehicles on 3.5 million kilometres of roads.
  2. The scale of vehicular emissions. They account for up to 70 per cent of carbon monoxide, 50 per cent of hydrocarbons and 30 per cent of particulate matter in urban air, leading to serious health problems such as asthma and lung cancer.
  3. Older vehicles. Those over ten years old are responsible for nearly 60 per cent of vehicular pollution, because of poor maintenance, outdated technology and the absence of effective scrappage norms.
  4. Adulterated fuel, which further aggravates emission levels.
  5. Rising affluence. Small cars and two-wheelers once dominated the market because incomes were low; rising affluence has increased demand for larger, more fuel-intensive vehicles.
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The passage concludes that this underscores the urgent need for stricter vehicle and fuel standards.

(ii) How could progressive taxation on the purchase of multiple vehicles help reduce urban air pollution and promote sustainable transport?

The passage itself proposes it: progressive taxation on the purchase of second, third and subsequent vehicles, to discourage excessive private vehicle ownership and curb pollution. How it would work:

  1. It attacks the cause the passage identifies. The problem is stated as too many vehicles for the road capacity available, so a measure that reduces the number of vehicles per household goes to the root rather than to the symptom.
  2. It prices the harm. A private vehicle imposes costs on everybody, in air quality, congestion and road wear, which the buyer does not pay. A progressive tax makes the buyer bear part of that cost, which is the polluter pays principle, recognised as part of Indian law in Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996).
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  1. It is targeted rather than blunt. It falls on the second and subsequent vehicle, so it does not penalise the household buying its first, and it therefore bears most heavily on discretionary ownership.
  2. It is progressive, so it is equitable. A flat levy would fall hardest on those least able to pay; a tax rising with each additional vehicle falls on those most able.
  3. It generates revenue that can be earmarked, for public transport, for electric buses, for charging infrastructure and for the scrappage of old vehicles, so that the measure funds the alternative it is pushing people towards.
  4. It shifts demand to sustainable transport, to buses, the metro, shared mobility and cycling, but only if that alternative exists, which is the condition on which the whole measure depends.
  5. It complements the other measures the passage calls for: stricter vehicle and fuel standards, effective scrappage norms, and action against adulterated fuel.
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The qualifications, which a good answer states. The tax must not be so high as to be confiscatory, or it will simply be evaded by registering vehicles in other names or in other States; taxes on vehicles are a State subject, so uniformity across States is a real difficulty; and a tax that reduces vehicle ownership without improving public transport transfers hardship rather than reducing pollution.

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15.As per section 2(1) of the Consumer Protection Act of 2019, "advertisement has been defined as- "means any audio or visual publicity, representation, endorsement or pronouncement made by means of light, sound, smoke, gas, print, electronic media, internet or website and includes any notice, circular, label, wrapper, invoice or such other documents," Yami displays images of his new Skin Gel product available in supermarkets, on billboards alongside a highway.[6]

  • (i) Explain whether Yami's action can be treated as an advertisement?
  • (ii) State with reasons what would be an appropriate rule of interpretation for interpreting the expression "or such other documents".

Answer

(i) Yes. Yami's action is an "advertisement" within the definition.

Apply the definition to the facts, element by element:

  1. "Any audio or VISUAL publicity": a billboard displaying images of a product is visual publicity. It is displayed to the public at large, alongside a highway, and its purpose is to bring the product to their notice.
  2. "Representation": the images represent the product and the fact that it is available in supermarkets.
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  1. "Made by means of light, sound, smoke, gas, PRINT, electronic media, internet or website": a billboard is print, and if illuminated, light as well. Either satisfies the requirement.
  2. There is no requirement in the definition that the publicity be paid for, that it name a price, or that it appear in any particular medium; the definition is drawn as widely as the draftsman could make it.

So Yami's billboard is an advertisement, and the consequences follow. He becomes subject to the provisions of the Act dealing with misleading advertisements, that is, an advertisement which falsely describes a product, gives a false guarantee, conveys an express or implied representation that would constitute an unfair trade practice, or deliberately conceals important information. The Central Consumer Protection Authority may order the discontinuance of a misleading advertisement, order a corrective advertisement, and impose a penalty on the manufacturer or the endorser; and for a skin product the claims made are exactly the kind the Authority scrutinises.

(ii) The applicable rule is EJUSDEM GENERIS, "of the same kind".

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The rule. Where general words follow an enumeration of specific things which constitute a genus or class, the general words are construed as limited to things of the same class.

Why it applies here. The five conditions are satisfied:

  1. There is an enumeration of specific words: "notice, circular, label, wrapper, invoice".
  2. They constitute a class: each is a written or printed commercial document connected with the goods or the transaction, either accompanying the goods or passing between the trader and the customer.
  3. The class is not exhausted by the enumeration; other documents of the same kind plainly exist.
  4. The general term follows the enumeration: "or such other documents".
  5. There is no indication of a contrary intention in the section.
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The consequence. "Or such other documents" is confined to documents of the same kind as a notice, circular, label, wrapper or invoice: for example a brochure, a leaflet, a pamphlet, a price list, a warranty card, a packaging insert, a catalogue or a receipt. It would not extend to a document of a wholly different character, such as a private letter, a company's internal memorandum, or a pleading in a court.

Two refinements worth a line each.

  • The definition is framed as "means ... and includes", which makes it exhaustive but wide: "means" fixes the core, and "includes" extends it to the enumerated documents and their genus. Ejusdem generis operates on the "includes" limb.
  • The earlier list, "light, sound, smoke, gas, print, electronic media, internet or website", is NOT followed by general words at all, so ejusdem generis has no application to it; that list is closed, and each item stands on its own. The rule attaches only where general words follow specific ones, which is why the examiner has quoted the whole definition and asked about one phrase in it.
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16.Diya's father allows his daughter Diya to manage his farm house property and repeatedly states that she will inherit everything. During her father's lifetime, Diya claims absolute ownership and sells the farm house to Aman.[6]

  • i. Can Diya be regarded as a legal heir to her father's property during his lifetime? What is the effect of the maxim Nemo est haeres viventis on Diya's claim of ownership?
  • ii. After the death of Diya's father, can the contract of sale executed by Diya during his lifetime be legally enforced by Aman against her?

Answer

(i) No. Diya is not a legal heir during her father's lifetime, and her claim of ownership is bad.

Nemo est haeres viventis means "no one is the heir of a living person." Heirship is determined only at the moment of death, so during a person's lifetime nobody can be called his heir. Those who would inherit if he died today are only heirs apparent or heirs presumptive, and what they have is a mere expectation, called a spes successionis, a chance of succession, and not a right.

Three consequences follow on these facts:

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  1. Diya has no title. Her father is alive and is the owner. Managing the property gives her possession as a manager, not ownership.
  2. Her father's repeated statements that she will inherit everything create no right in her. They are at most an intention to make a will, and a will is ambulatory and revocable until death: he may sell the property, give it away, or make a will in favour of somebody else at any time.
  3. A spes successionis cannot be transferred. Section 6(a) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, provides expressly that the chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate cannot be transferred, and a transfer of it is void.

So the sale to Aman, made during the father's lifetime, transferred nothing. Diya had no interest to convey, and a transfer of a mere expectancy is void, not merely voidable.

(ii) After the father's death, whether Aman can enforce the sale depends on what Aman knew, and the answer turns on Section 43.

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Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the doctrine of "feeding the grant by estoppel", provides that where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property, and professes to transfer it for consideration, the transfer shall, at the option of the transferee, operate on any interest which the transferor may acquire in that property at any time during which the contract of transfer subsists.

The two provisions appear to conflict, and the conflict is the point of the question. Section 6(a) says a chance of succession cannot be transferred at all; Section 43 says an after-acquired interest may feed a transfer made on an erroneous representation.

The reconciliation is settled by Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah (1962), in which the Supreme Court held that the two sections operate in different fields:

  • Section 6(a) applies where BOTH parties know that what is being transferred is a mere chance of succession. They deal with it as an expectancy, and such a transfer is void, and cannot be validated by anything that happens later.
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  • Section 43 applies where the transferee has been MISLED, that is, where the transferor represented that he had a present title and the transferee, acting in good faith and without knowledge of the true position, paid for it. In that case the transferor is estopped from denying the transfer, and the after-acquired title feeds it.

Applying that to Diya and Aman:

  • If Aman knew that Diya was only her father's prospective heir and that the property was her father's, then the sale was a transfer of a spes successionis, is void under Section 6(a), and cannot be enforced even after the father's death.
  • If Aman was misled, and on the facts stated Diya "claims absolute ownership", which is a representation of a present title, and Aman paid for the property in good faith and without notice of the true position, then Section 43 applies. On the father's death Diya inherits, and at that moment Aman may, at his option, claim that the transfer operates on the interest she has acquired, provided that the contract of transfer still subsists and that the property has not meanwhile passed to a bona fide transferee for value without notice of the option.
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On the facts as stated, the second is the more likely case, and Aman can enforce the sale after the father's death.

Aman's alternative remedies, if Section 43 is unavailable to him: a suit against Diya for the return of the price with interest, and for damages for breach of the covenant of title implied in a sale; and, where the representation was fraudulent, an action for deceit.

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SECTION IV

Answer in detail

Any three · 39 Marks

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17.Explain the different Parts of a Statute and their function in interpretation of a statute.[13]

Answer

A statute has a settled architecture, and each part has a recognised weight when a court comes to construe it. The parts found within the Act are the internal aids to construction.

1. The short title. The name by which the Act is cited: "This Act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993". Function in interpretation: none. It is a label for convenience and cannot control the meaning of any section.

2. The official citation. The number of the Act in the year of enactment, "Act No. 10 of 1994". A means of unique identification, with no interpretative value; but it is the number, not the name, that is unique, because several Acts a year carry confusable names.

3. The long title. The sentence beginning "An Act to ...", stating the general purpose and scope. Function: it is part of the Act and may legitimately be used to ascertain the general object where a provision is ambiguous. The older English view that the title was no part of the Act has been abandoned; but it cannot control clear enacting words.

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4. The preamble. A recital beginning "WHEREAS ...", setting out the reasons for the legislation. Function: it is a key to the mind of the legislature and may be used to resolve an ambiguity, but where the enacting part is clear and unambiguous the preamble cannot cut it down or extend it. Most modern Indian Acts have none; the outstanding example that does is the Preamble to the Constitution, held to be part of it in Kesavananda Bharati (1973).

5. The enacting formula. "BE it enacted by Parliament in the ... Year of the Republic of India as follows". Function: it declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text into law. It has no role in construing individual sections.

6. Marginal notes. The short headings printed against each section. Function: contested. The old English rule excluded them, since they are inserted by the draftsman and are not voted on. Indian courts will look at a marginal note as an aid where the section is ambiguous, but it can never prevail over the plain words.

7. Headings and chapter titles, such as "CHAPTER I: Preliminary". Function: they may be referred to in construing the sections grouped under them, as a preamble to that group, but cannot restrict a section's plain meaning.

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8. The definition or interpretation clause. Function: decisive. A definition governs the whole Act "unless the context otherwise requires", and those words matter: a defined meaning yields where the context of a particular section demands otherwise. Note the drafting signals: "means" introduces an exhaustive definition; "includes" an extending one; "means and includes" an exhaustive definition framed widely.

9. Provisos. Clauses beginning "Provided that". Function: a proviso carves an exception out of the provision to which it is attached. Its normal office is to except something that would otherwise fall within the main clause; it must be read with that clause and cannot be construed as enlarging the section.

10. Explanations. Function: to explain or clarify the section, remove a doubt, or fill a gap. An explanation neither enlarges nor curtails the section; it makes plain what the section already contains.

11. Exceptions and saving clauses. An exception exempts what would otherwise be within the section. A saving clause preserves rights, obligations or proceedings which would otherwise be destroyed, most often on a repeal, and is read with Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897.

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12. Schedules. Function: schedules are part of the Act and have the same force as the sections. They carry detail, forms, lists and rules which would clutter the body. Where a section and a schedule conflict, the section prevails.

13. Illustrations. Found in the older codes, the Contract Act, the Evidence Act, the Penal Code. Function: they are part of the statute and are valuable as showing how the legislature intended the section to apply, but they cannot modify its language.

14. Punctuation. Function: of little weight. Older statutes were enrolled without punctuation, and the rule is that punctuation may be looked at but cannot control the plain meaning.

15. The non obstante clause. "Notwithstanding anything contained in ...". Function: to give the provision overriding effect over whatever it names; the standard device for resolving a conflict in advance.

16. The repeal and savings section, usually the last in the Act.

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18.Write an essay on "The Impact of Artificial Intelligence on the Legal Field"[13]

Answer

What artificial intelligence is. AI is the capability of a computer system to perform tasks that ordinarily require human intelligence: learning from data, reasoning, recognising patterns, understanding and generating natural language, and making predictions. What exists today is narrow AI, built for particular tasks; machine learning is the branch in which a system learns rules from data rather than being programmed with them, and generative AI the branch that produces new text.

WHERE IT HAS ALREADY CHANGED LEGAL WORK.

  1. Legal research. Searching a corpus of a million judgments by concept rather than by keyword, and retrieving the authorities on a point in seconds, is work that used to take days in a library. SCC Online, Manupatra and the free Indian Kanoon have all added AI-assisted search.
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  1. Translation, which matters more in India than anywhere else. The Supreme Court's SUVAS, the Vidhik Anuvaad Software, translates judgments into Indian languages. Article 348 of the Constitution requires the Supreme Court and the High Courts to work in English, and most litigants do not read English, so translation is not a convenience but a question of access to justice.
  2. Court administration and pendency. SUPACE, the Supreme Court Portal for Assistance in Court's Efficiency, launched in April 2021, helps judges extract and organise the relevant material from voluminous files, and the eCourts project has moved filing, scheduling and case management online. With tens of millions of cases pending, any tool that reduces the time spent on the mechanical parts of a case has a direct effect on delay.
  3. Document review and due diligence. Reviewing thousands of contracts for a particular clause is exactly the repetitive classification a machine does better and far more cheaply than a junior lawyer.
  4. Drafting. First drafts of contracts, notices, pleadings and opinions, generated from precedents for a lawyer to correct.
  5. Predictive analytics, estimating the likely outcome or duration of a matter from past data, which is useful in advising a client whether to settle.
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  1. Access to justice. Chatbots and guided interfaces that tell a person what his rights are and what form to file. For the very large number of Indians who will never consult a lawyer, this is the application with the greatest potential value of all.
  2. Evidence and investigation, where AI assists in forensic analysis and in the review of electronic material.

THE RISKS, WHICH MUST OCCUPY AT LEAST A THIRD OF THE ANSWER.

  1. Fabrication. A language model produces the statistically likely output, not the true one, and will generate fluent citations to cases that do not exist. Lawyers in other jurisdictions have been sanctioned by courts for filing submissions containing invented authorities. Every output must be verified against the primary source, and a lawyer who cites what he has not read is at fault whether a machine or a clerk produced it.
  2. Bias. A system trained on past decisions learns the patterns in them, including the discrimination the law is trying to remove, and then reproduces it with the appearance of objectivity. Predictive tools used abroad in bail and sentencing have been shown to produce different results by race.
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  1. Opacity. Many systems cannot explain why they produced a particular output. A decision affecting rights must be supported by reasons, which is a rule of natural justice, so an unexplainable system cannot lawfully decide anything.
  2. Accountability. If an AI-assisted step causes loss, the lawyer or the authority remains responsible; the tool is no defence.
  3. Confidentiality and data protection. Feeding a client's papers into a third-party service may breach both the duty of confidence and the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
  4. Unauthorised practice. Advice given by a machine to a member of the public is not regulated by the Advocates Act, 1961, and is covered by no professional indemnity and no disciplinary jurisdiction.
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  1. Deepfakes and the authenticity of evidence. Generated audio, images and video make it possible to manufacture apparently conclusive evidence, which raises hard questions for the law of evidence and for the certificate requirement for electronic records confirmed in Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal (2020).
  2. The effect on entry to the profession. The work AI does best, research, review, first drafts, is precisely the work by which juniors learn. A profession that automates its apprenticeship has a problem it will not notice for ten years.

THE LINE THE LAW HAS DRAWN. AI may assist; it may not decide. Indian courts have used it as a reference tool and have said expressly that such use is for reference only and forms no part of the reasoning. That is right in principle for a reason that goes beyond technology: judicial discretion is a responsibility placed on a person who is accountable, must give reasons, and can be appealed against. A machine has none of those attributes, and the day it did, it would be a judge and not a tool.

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Conclusion. The impact of artificial intelligence on the legal field is that it removes the mechanical part of legal work, and the mechanical part is most of it. Searching, translating, reviewing, summarising and drafting are all tasks it does faster and more cheaply than a person, and in a system with India's pendency and India's language barrier that is not a marginal gain. What it cannot do is judge, because judgment means weighing incommensurable considerations and answering for the result. The right posture is neither refusal nor delegation but supervised use: the machine drafts and the lawyer verifies; the machine sorts and the judge decides.

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19.Outline the facts, issues and guidelines given by the Supreme Court in Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan- AIR 1997 SC 3011[13]

Answer

Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.

Facts. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker employed in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. In the course of her work she attempted to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a village family, and in 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. She met obstruction at every stage: the police were reluctant to record the complaint and the medical examination was delayed, and in 1995 the trial court acquitted the accused. The State's appeal against that acquittal has remained pending in the Rajasthan High Court.

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A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, together with other social activists and non-governmental organisations, as a class action in the public interest, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain a general remedy: a declaration that sexual harassment at the workplace violates fundamental rights, and directions to protect working women. The petitioners' point was that Bhanwari Devi was attacked because of her work, and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.

Issues.

  1. Whether sexual harassment at the workplace violates Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 of the Constitution.
  2. Whether, in the absence of any enacted law on the subject, the Supreme Court may lay down binding guidelines to fill the vacuum.
  3. Whether international conventions, in particular the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), which India ratified in 1993, may be read into the fundamental rights.

The decision.

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  1. Sexual harassment at the workplace is a violation of fundamental rights. It infringes the right to equality under Articles 14 and 15; the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation under Article 19(1)(g), because a hostile environment drives women out of work; and the right to life with dignity under Article 21.
  2. International law may fill a domestic vacuum. In the absence of domestic legislation, international conventions consistent with the fundamental rights and ratified by India may be read into Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21, drawing on Article 51(c), which directs the State to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and Article 253, which empowers Parliament to legislate to implement treaties. This is the case's lasting contribution to constitutional method, and it is cited far beyond the field of harassment.
  3. The Court laid down guidelines binding under Article 141 and directed that they be observed "until suitable legislation is enacted to occupy the field".

The guidelines.

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  1. Duty of the employer. It is the duty of every employer, in the public and private sectors, to prevent or deter the commission of acts of sexual harassment and to provide procedures for the resolution, settlement or prosecution of complaints.
  2. Definition. Sexual harassment means unwelcome sexually determined behaviour, whether direct or by implication, comprising physical contact and advances; a demand or request for sexual favours; sexually coloured remarks; showing pornography; and any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.
  3. Preventive steps. Express prohibition must be notified, published and circulated; the conduct rules of government servants must include prohibition and penalties; standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, must be amended accordingly in private employment; and working conditions must not be hostile to women.
  4. Criminal proceedings. Where the conduct amounts to a specific offence, the employer must initiate action by complaining to the appropriate authority, and must ensure that victims and witnesses are not victimised or discriminated against, with the option of the transfer of the victim or of the offender.
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  1. Disciplinary action must be taken where the conduct amounts to misconduct under the service rules.
  2. Complaint mechanism. An appropriate complaint mechanism must exist in the employer's organisation, providing for the time-bound treatment of complaints.
  3. Complaints Committee. It must be headed by a woman, with not less than half its members women, and must involve a third party, such as a non-governmental organisation familiar with the issue, to prevent undue pressure from senior levels; it must submit an annual report to the Government.
  4. Workers' initiative. Employees must be allowed to raise the issue at workers' meetings and other appropriate forums, and it must be affirmatively discussed in employer-employee meetings.
  5. Awareness. Awareness of the rights of female employees must be created by prominently notifying the guidelines.
  6. Third parties. Where the act is committed by a person other than an employee, the employer must take necessary and reasonable steps to assist the affected person.
  7. Government action. The Central and State Governments should consider adopting suitable measures, including legislation, to ensure that private employers observe the guidelines.
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Aftermath. The guidelines were applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999), where the Supreme Court upheld the dismissal of a superior who had molested a subordinate and again relied on international norms, and in Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013), where the Court found compliance inadequate and issued further directions. Sixteen years after the judgment, Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, in force from 9 December 2013, which now governs the field: it requires an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees, a Local Committee in each district for the unorganised sector and smaller establishments, and it prescribes the inquiry procedure, time limits, interim reliefs and penalties.

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20.Discuss the legal maxim Actus de nemini facit injuriam with case laws.[13]

Answer

(The paper prints "Actus de nemini facit injuriam". The maxim is actus Dei nemini facit injuriam.)

The maxim means "an act of God does injury to no one", that is, no person is held liable in law for a loss caused by an act of God, because the loss is caused by natural forces for which no human being is answerable.

What an "act of God" is. An event due to natural causes, directly and exclusively, without human intervention, which could not have been prevented by any amount of foresight, pains and care reasonably to be expected. It is also called vis major, "a greater force", in Roman and English law, and damnum fatale, "loss by fate", in Scots law.

The two essential ingredients, and both must be established:

  1. The event must be the result of natural forces without any human intervention; and
  2. it must be extraordinary, and not one that could reasonably have been anticipated and guarded against.
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The second is where most defences fail. Rain is not an act of God; rain of a quantity never recorded before may be. Ordinary storms, ordinary high tides and ordinary frost are all foreseeable, and a defendant who fails to provide against them is negligent, not unlucky.

THE CASE LAW.

  • Nichols v. Marsland (1876): the defendant had artificial ornamental lakes on her land, formed by damming a natural stream. An extraordinary rainfall, greater than any within living memory, burst the embankments and swept away four bridges belonging to the plaintiff. Held: the defence of act of God succeeded, because the flood was so unprecedented that no reasonable care could have provided against it.
  • Greenock Corporation v. Caledonian Railway (1917): the Corporation had altered the course of a stream and built a paddling pool in it. An extraordinary rainfall caused the stream to overflow and flood the plaintiff's property. Held: the defence failed. The House of Lords held that it is the duty of a person who interferes with the course of a stream to provide for even extraordinary rainfall, and doubted Nichols v. Marsland. The two cases together mark the boundary: the defence protects a person who is overwhelmed by nature, not one who has altered nature and then been overtaken by it.
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  • Kallulal v. Hemchand (1968): a wall of the respondent's building collapsed on a day of heavy rainfall, killing the appellant's children. The rainfall recorded was 2.66 inches. Held: the defence failed, because rainfall of that order is not extraordinary in that place and season, and the collapse was attributable to the condition of the building.
  • Rylands v. Fletcher (1868) is the frame within which the defence operates: the rule of strict liability for the escape of a dangerous thing brought on to land is subject to five recognised exceptions, of which act of God is one, the others being the plaintiff's own default, the act of a stranger, the plaintiff's consent, and statutory authority.

WHERE THE MAXIM OPERATES.

  1. As a general defence in tort, and specifically as an exception to the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher.
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  1. In the law of contract, as the basis of the doctrine of frustration. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides that a contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible or unlawful by reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent, becomes void. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. (1954) is the leading Indian authority on the section, holding that "impossible" in Section 56 does not mean physical impossibility but impracticability judged by the object of the contract. Commercial contracts commonly deal with the matter expressly by a force majeure clause, and where there is such a clause the contract governs, as Energy Watchdog v. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (2017) holds.
  2. In the law of carriage, where a common carrier is an insurer of the goods but is excused by an act of God and by the act of the King's enemies.
  3. In the law of limitation and procedure, where a natural calamity may amount to "sufficient cause" for condoning delay.
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THE CRUCIAL LIMIT: absolute liability. The defence is not available at all against the rule of absolute liability laid down in M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Oleum Gas Leak case, under which an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is liable for harm resulting from it without any of the exceptions that qualify strict liability. A chemical plant cannot answer a gas escape by pleading an earthquake.

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21.Discuss Presumptions in Statutory interpretation.[13]

Answer

What a presumption is. In interpreting a statute a court starts from certain assumptions about what the legislature intended, which hold good unless the statute displaces them expressly or by necessary implication. They are not rules of law but starting points, and they place the burden of argument on the party contending for the contrary.

THE PRESUMPTIONS.

1. That a statute is constitutional and valid. A statute enacted by a competent legislature is presumed valid, and the burden of showing that it is unconstitutional lies on the challenger. The court leans in favour of validity and will read down a provision to save it. The legislature is presumed to understand and correctly appreciate the needs of its own people: Charanjit Lal Chowdhury v. Union of India (1951) and Ram Krishna Dalmia v. Justice S. R. Tendolkar (1958). This is linked to the maxim ut res magis valeat quam pereat, that a construction which upholds a provision is preferred to one which destroys it, and to the doctrine of severability: R. M. D. Chamarbaugwalla v. Union of India (1957).

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2. That a statute is prospective and not retrospective. Nova constitutio futuris formam imponere debet, non praeteritis: a new law regulates what is to follow, not the past. A statute is construed as prospective unless it says otherwise expressly or by necessary implication. Exceptions: procedural statutes are presumed retrospective, because no one has a vested right in a form of procedure; and declaratory and curative statutes are retrospective, because they state what the law always was. Article 20(1) puts an absolute bar on retrospective criminal liability. Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay (1951).

3. That the legislature knows the existing law and does not intend to alter it further than it says. A statute is presumed not to change the existing law, whether statutory or common law, beyond what its words require, and not to take away vested rights without clear words. It follows that implied repeal is not favoured, and that where a general Act and an earlier special Act cover the same ground the special prevails: generalia specialibus non derogant.

4. That the legislature does not intend what is unjust, inconvenient, unreasonable or absurd. This is the foundation of the golden rule, and it permits a court to modify the literal meaning where it would produce such a result, but no further: Grey v. Pearson (1857).

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5. That words are used in their ordinary and popular sense, unless the statute is addressed to a particular trade or profession, in which case they bear the meaning the trade gives them: Motipur Zamindary Co. v. State of Bihar, where sugarcane was held not to be a "green vegetable".

6. That every word has a purpose and none is superfluous. A construction which renders a word, a phrase or a provision otiose is to be avoided, and a court should give effect to the whole of the statute.

7. That the legislature does not intend to exceed its jurisdiction. A statute is presumed not to have extra-territorial operation, and not to violate the distribution of legislative powers in the Seventh Schedule; a construction that keeps the Act within the competence of the legislature is preferred. Note the qualification in Article 245(2), that a law of Parliament is not invalid merely because it has extra-territorial operation.

8. That mens rea is an ingredient of a criminal offence unless it is excluded expressly or by necessary implication: State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George. This is the presumption behind the strict construction of penal statutes and the maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.

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9. That the jurisdiction of the civil courts is not ousted except by clear words or necessary implication, and that a provision purporting to exclude judicial review is construed narrowly. This follows from the constitutional position that judicial review is part of the basic structure: Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980).

10. That a statute is exhaustive on the subject with which it deals, so that a code is presumed to contain the whole of the law on its topic and is not to be supplemented from outside.

11. That the legislature does not intend to violate international law or India's treaty obligations, so that a construction consistent with a convention India has ratified is preferred: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997).

12. Omnia praesumuntur rite esse acta: official acts are presumed to have been regularly and correctly performed, and a public officer is presumed to have acted within his authority, until the contrary is shown.

13. That a remedy is not taken away without an alternative, and that where a right is created a remedy is intended, which is ubi jus ibi remedium operating as a presumption.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2025-26 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 21 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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