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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2023-24 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2023-24 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 11 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2023-24 examination.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2023-24 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  24 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer any 6 of the following in one or two sentences 12 Marks

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1.I will never forget this experience. (Change the following active sentences into passive voice.)[2]

Answer

This experience will never be forgotten by me.

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2.I will be the happiest man one day. (Change the degree of comparison from superlative to positive.)[2]

Answer

No other man will be as happy as I (will be) one day.

(Equally acceptable: No other man will be so happy as me one day.)

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3."Call the first convict," said the jury. (Change the sentence to indirect speech)[2]

Answer

The jury ordered that the first convict should be called.

(Equally acceptable: The jury ordered them to call the first convict.)

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4.Define Amicus Curiae[2]

Answer

Amicus curiae is Latin for "friend of the court". It means a person, usually a senior advocate, who is not a party to the proceeding, and who is appointed by the court, or permitted by it, to assist the court on a question of law or fact.

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5.Write two features of Law teller[2]

Answer

Law Teller is an Indian monthly law magazine published from Delhi, written for the general reader and for students rather than for practitioners. Any two of the following are features of it:

  1. It reports and digests recent judgments of the Supreme Court and the High Courts in plain, non-technical English, so that a reader without legal training can follow what was decided and why.
  2. Its purpose is legal awareness rather than legal citation. It carries articles on the everyday law a citizen meets: consumer protection, tenancy, matrimonial disputes, service matters, cheque dishonour, motor accident claims and the rights of an arrested person.
  3. It carries a readers' query column, in which questions sent in by readers about their own legal problems are answered by advocates.
  4. It is a priced monthly for a general readership and carries legal news, notifications and amendments as well as case summaries.
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6.Give full forms of a) AIR b) CWN[2]

Answer

  1. A.I.R. = All India Reporter, the general Indian law report published from Nagpur since 1914, founded by V. V. Chitaley, which reports the Supreme Court, the High Courts and, historically, the Federal Court and the Privy Council.
  2. C.W.N. = Calcutta Weekly Notes, the law report of the decisions of the Calcutta High Court, one of the older Indian series.
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7.Write the meaning of a) Respondent Superior b) Caveat Emptor[2]

Answer

(a) Respondeat superior means "let the superior answer", or let the principal be liable. It is the maxim on which vicarious liability rests: a master is answerable for a tort committed by his servant in the course of employment, and is liable jointly with the servant although the master himself is without fault. It is often paired with qui facit per alium facit per se, "he who acts through another acts himself".

(b) Caveat emptor means "let the buyer beware". It is the rule of the law of sale that the buyer must satisfy himself as to the quality and fitness of what he buys, and that in the absence of fraud or an express warranty the seller is not answerable for defects.

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8.Do you recall my name my address my job my passion. (Add Punctuation marks to the sentence)[2]

Answer

Do you recall my name, my address, my job, my passion?

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9.We are late for the movies, ___? (ADD A QUESTION TAG)[2]

Answer

We are late for the movies, aren't we?

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10.The school will be closed for winter break. Identify the type of tenses.[2]

Answer

The tense is the simple future, also called the future indefinite, and the verb is in the passive voice.

The verb phrase is will be closed: will is the marker of the simple future, and be plus the past participle closed is the passive form. So the full description is future indefinite tense, passive voice.

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SECTION II

Write short notes on two of the following 12 Marks

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11.Write the difference between Discharge and Acquittal.[6]

Answer

Discharge is an order made before the charge is framed, releasing the accused because the material placed before the court does not disclose sufficient ground for proceeding against him. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the provisions were Section 227 in a sessions trial, Section 239 in a warrant case on a police report and Section 245 in a warrant case on a complaint.

Acquittal is the finding, at the conclusion of a trial, that the accused is not guilty of the offence charged, recorded where the prosecution has failed to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt or where a general exception applies. The provisions were Sections 232 and 235(1) in a sessions trial and Section 248(1) in a warrant case.

The Code has been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, with effect from 1 July 2024, which carries the same scheme forward.

The differences:

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DischargeAcquittal
StageBefore the charge is framedAfter the trial is concluded
BasisNo sufficient ground to proceedThe charge is not proved beyond reasonable doubt
EvidenceNone has been recorded; the court looks at the material on recordEvidence has been led and tested by cross-examination
NatureNot a decision on the meritsA decision on the merits
Test appliedWhether a prima facie case or grave suspicion existsWhether guilt is established beyond reasonable doubt
EffectProceedings may be revived on fresh materialThe bar of double jeopardy applies
Remedy against itRevisionAppeal against acquittal
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12.Write the difference between Reviews and Revision.[6]

Answer

Review is an application to the same court which passed the decree or order, asking it to reconsider its own decision. It is provided for by Section 114 and Order XLVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and for the Supreme Court by Article 137 of the Constitution.

The grounds are limited to three:

  1. the discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence, was not within the applicant's knowledge or could not be produced at the time the decree was passed;
  2. a mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; or
  3. any other sufficient reason, which the courts have read as meaning a reason analogous to the first two.

Revision is the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court over the courts subordinate to it, exercised under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and, in criminal matters, under Sections 397 to 401 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, now carried into the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.

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The grounds are confined to jurisdiction. The High Court may interfere where the subordinate court has:

  1. exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law;
  2. failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested; or
  3. acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity.

The differences:

ReviewRevision
ProvisionSection 114 and Order XLVII, CPCSection 115, CPC; Sections 397 to 401, criminal procedure
Which courtThe same court that passed the orderThe High Court, over a subordinate court
NatureReconsideration by the court of its own decisionSupervisory jurisdiction over another court
GroundsNew evidence; error apparent on the record; other sufficient reasonErrors of jurisdiction only
Who may applyA party aggrievedA party aggrieved, and the High Court may also act suo motu
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ReviewRevision
When availableWhether or not an appeal lies, subject to the sectionOrdinarily only where no appeal lies
Nature of the rightA right to apply, but relief is discretionaryEntirely discretionary; no party has a right to revision
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13.Explain the maxim Audi Alterem Partem.[6]

Answer

Audi alteram partem means "hear the other side", and it is one of the two classical rules of natural justice. It requires that no person shall be condemned unheard: before an order is made affecting a person's rights, interests or legitimate expectations, he must be given notice of the case against him and a fair opportunity to answer it.

Its content, which is where the marks are:

  1. Notice. The person must be told what is alleged against him, in terms specific enough to allow an answer, and in time to prepare one. A vague or belated notice is no notice.
  2. An opportunity to be heard, which may be in writing or oral, according to what the matter requires.
  3. Disclosure of the material relied on. A decision may not rest on evidence, reports or representations the affected person has not seen.
  4. The right to cross-examine, where the case against him rests on the evidence of witnesses.
  5. Legal representation, where the issues are complex or the other side is represented.
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  1. The decision must be made by the authority that heard the case: "he who decides must hear", so a report cannot be heard by one officer and decided by another who never read it.
  2. A reasoned decision. Indian law now treats the duty to give reasons as an element of natural justice, so that the affected person knows why he lost and can appeal meaningfully.

Cases. Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863), where a house was demolished without notice and the court held that even a statutory power carried an implied duty to hear, is the classical authority; Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) revived the principle in modern administrative law; A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969) held that the duty applies to administrative as well as quasi-judicial action; and Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) held that the procedure contemplated by Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, which brings natural justice into the Constitution itself.

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Exceptions. The rule is excluded or curtailed where there is a genuine emergency requiring immediate action, such as the seizure of contaminated food; where the statute expressly excludes it, subject to Article 14; where confidentiality or the security of the State is involved; where compliance is impracticable, as with very large numbers of persons; in matters of academic evaluation; and where a hearing would be a useless formality because the outcome could not have been different, an exception Indian courts apply narrowly.

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14.Explain the maxim Nemo debet ese judex in propria Causa.[6]

Answer

Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa means "no one should be a judge in his own cause", and it is the second classical rule of natural justice, usually called the rule against bias. It requires that a person who decides must be, and must appear to be, disinterested and impartial.

The forms of bias:

  1. Pecuniary bias. Any financial interest in the outcome, however small, disqualifies automatically, and it is not necessary to show that the decision was in fact affected. In Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852) decrees made by the Lord Chancellor were set aside because he held shares in the company, although nobody suggested he had been influenced.
  2. Personal bias, arising from relationship, friendship, hostility or a professional connection with a party. Manak Lal v. Dr Prem Chand (1957), where the chairman of a disciplinary tribunal had earlier appeared for the complainant.
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  1. Subject-matter bias, a direct interest in the issue or its outcome.
  2. Departmental or policy bias, and the related problem of the officer who investigates and then adjudicates. A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969) is the leading Indian authority: a member of the selection board was himself a candidate for selection, and the selections were quashed. The case also abolished the old distinction between judicial and administrative functions for the purposes of natural justice.

The test. The question is not whether the decision-maker was in fact biased, which is usually impossible to prove and would require the court to examine a judge's mind. It is whether there was a real likelihood of bias, or, on the wider formulation, a reasonable apprehension of bias in the mind of a reasonable person. The governing statement is from R v. Sussex Justices, ex parte McCarthy (1924): "justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done."

Effect. An order made in breach of the rule is liable to be quashed by certiorari, or set aside in appeal or writ proceedings, without the aggrieved person having to show that a different decision would have been reached.

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SECTION III

Read the following and answer any two of the questions given below 12 Marks

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15.THE MATERNITY BENEFIT ACT, 1971. (Act no 53 of 1961) [12December 1961] An act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishment for certain periods before and after child-birth and to provide for Maternity benefit and certain other benefits.[6]

  • 1. Short title, extent and commencement-
  • (i) This act may be called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
  • (ii) It extends to the whole of India
  • (iii) It shall come into force on such date as may be notified in this behalf in the official gazette.
  • (A) In relation to mines and to any other establishment wherein persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performances by the central government'
  • (b) In relation to other Establishment in state, by the state government. Identify the Following: (I) Short title (ii) official citation (ii) Enacting formula (IV) Preamble

Answer

BE it enacted by parliament in the twelfth year of The Republic of India as follows:

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Short title"This act may be called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961", section 1(i) of the extract. The short title is the name by which the Act is cited.
(ii) Official citation"(Act no 53 of 1961)", the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment.
(iii) Enacting formula"BE it enacted by parliament in the twelfth year of The Republic of India as follows:" It declares the authority by which the law is made.
(iv) Preamble"An act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishment for certain periods before and after child-birth and to provide for Maternity benefit and certain other benefits."
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16.THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971. (Act no 34 of 1971) [10th August, 1971] An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matter connected therewith or incidental thereto.[6]

  • (1) Short title, extent and commencement.
  • (1) This act may be called the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India.
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as the central Government may by notification in official gazette appoint. Identify the following: (i) Short title (ii) Date of assent (ii) Official citation (IV) Enacting formula

Answer

BE it enacted by the parliament in the twenty-second year of Republic of India as follows:

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Short title"This act may be called the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", section 1(1).
(ii) Date of assent10th August, 1971, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act. This is the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution.
(iii) Official citation"(Act no 34 of 1971)"
(iv) Enacting formula"BE it enacted by the parliament in the twenty-second year of Republic of India as follows:"
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17.THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS ACT, 1993. (ACT No.10 OF 1994) [8 January 1994] An act to provide for the constitution of National human Rights Commission, State Human Rights commission in state and human rights court for the matter connected therewith or incidental thereto.[6]

  • 1. Short title, Extent and Commencement
  • 2. This act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • 3. It extends to the whole of India provided that it shall apply to the state of Jammu And Kashmir only in so far as it pertains to the matter relatable to any of the entries enumerated in list II in the schedule of the constitution as applicable to that state.
  • 3. It shall deemed to have come in force on 28th day of September 1993 Identify the following: I) Extent ii) short title iii) Long title iv) Date of commencement

Answer

Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Extent"It extends to the whole of India provided that it shall apply to the state of Jammu And Kashmir only in so far as it pertains to the matter relatable to any of the entries enumerated in list II in the schedule of the constitution as applicable to that state." The extent clause states the territory over which the Act operates.
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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(ii) Short title"This act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993."
(iii) Long title"An act to provide for the constitution of National human Rights Commission, State Human Rights commission in state and human rights court for the matter connected therewith or incidental thereto."
(iv) Date of commencement28th September 1993. The extract says the Act "shall deemed to have come in force on 28th day of September 1993".
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18.How to search case laws for negligence under Tort laws.[6]

Answer

Begin by noticing what makes this search different. The law of torts in India is not codified. There is no Indian Torts Act, and negligence is judge-made law received from the English common law and developed by the Indian courts. A search that begins with a statute, as it would for contract or for criminal law, will find nothing, and recognising that is the first step.

Step 1. Frame the issue in the language of the tort. Negligence has three ingredients, and the search terms follow them: a duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff; a breach of that duty by falling below the standard of the reasonable man; and damage caused by the breach which is not too remote. Add the defences: contributory negligence, volenti non fit injuria, act of God, and inevitable accident.

Step 2. Start with the standard commentaries, because they are the finding tools for uncodified law. Ratanlal and Dhirajlal's Law of Torts, Winfield and Jolowicz and Salmond and Heuston will give you the leading authorities and the current state of each rule. Remember that a textbook is not authority: it tells you where to look, and you cite the case.

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Step 3. Collect the leading cases.

  • Blyth v. Birmingham Waterworks Co. (1856): the classical definition, that negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man would do, or doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do.
  • Donoghue v. Stevenson (1932): the neighbour principle, which established that a duty of care may exist independently of contract.
  • Caparo Industries plc v. Dickman (1990): the modern three-fold test for a duty of care, foreseeability, proximity, and whether it is fair, just and reasonable to impose one.
  • Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti (1966): negligence of a public authority, and the application of res ipsa loquitur to the collapse of the Clock Tower.
  • Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab (2005) and Kusum Sharma v. Batra Hospital (2010): the standard of care in medical negligence, and the Bolam test as applied in India.
  • Indian Medical Association v. V. P. Shantha (1995): medical services are a "service" under the consumer legislation, which opened a second and faster forum for negligence claims.
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Step 4. Do not overlook the statutes that intersect with the tort, even though negligence itself is uncodified: the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which governs most negligence litigation in practice and which provides for compensation without proof of fault in defined cases; the Fatal Accidents Act, 1855; the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923; and the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Step 5. Use the finding tools properly. The AIR Manual and the digests are arranged by subject; look under "Negligence" and then under the sub-heading that matches your facts, "medical", "motor accident", "occupier's liability", "public authority". Then use a citator or an online database, SCC Online, Manupatra or the free Indian Kanoon, to bring the search forward and to check that the case has been followed and not overruled.

Step 6. Read the judgment, not the headnote, and identify the ratio decidendi, the proposition necessary to the decision on the material facts. A headnote is written by the report's editor, is not part of the judgment and binds nobody.

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Step 7. Record the citation with the court, because the court fixes the authority: a Supreme Court decision binds every court in India under Article 141; a High Court decision binds only the courts subordinate to it; and an English decision, however famous, is persuasive only, which matters a great deal in a subject built on English cases.

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SECTION IV

Answer any two of the following 24 Marks

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19.Write an essay on judicial approach to environmental law.[12]

Answer

The proposition. Indian environmental law is, to an unusual degree, the creation of the courts. The Constitution as adopted said nothing about the environment; the statutes came late and are indifferently enforced; and it is the Supreme Court and the High Courts that have supplied both the rights and much of the machinery.

The constitutional material the courts had to work with.

  • Article 21: no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This is the source of the right.
  • Article 48A, a Directive Principle inserted by the Forty-second Amendment, 1976: the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life.
  • Article 51A(g), a Fundamental Duty inserted by the same amendment: it is the duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment.
  • Articles 32 and 226, which supply the remedy.
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The technique. Article 48A and Article 51A(g) are, respectively, unenforceable and non-justiciable. Article 21 is enforceable. The Court read the unenforceable principle into the enforceable right, holding that the right to life means more than animal existence and includes the right to live in a healthy environment. That single move is the foundation of the whole subject.

The decisions that mark the development.

  • Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1985), the Dehradun limestone quarrying case, the first major environmental PIL, in which the Court ordered quarries closed although this cost employment.
  • M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), the Oleum Gas Leak case, which created the rule of absolute liability: an enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity is liable for harm resulting from it without any of the exceptions that qualify the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, and compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise so that it deters.
  • Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991), which stated in terms that the right to life includes the right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air.
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  • Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996), which held that sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle are part of the law of India, the precautionary principle placing the onus on the developer to show his activity is benign.
  • Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India (1996), the Bichhri case, applying absolute liability and polluter pays to make the polluter bear the cost of restoring the damaged environment.
  • M. C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997), which brought the public trust doctrine into Indian law: rivers, forests, air and the sea are held by the State as trustee for the public and cannot be converted into private ownership.
  • T. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India (1996 onwards), the forest case, in which the Court has retained the matter for decades under continuing mandamus, effectively administering forest policy.
  • M. K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India (2024), recognising a right against the adverse effects of climate change drawn from Articles 21 and 14.

The tools the courts developed, which are the real subject of the essay:

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  1. Public interest litigation and relaxed locus standi, so that anyone acting in good faith may move the court on behalf of those who cannot.
  2. Epistolary jurisdiction, treating a letter as a petition.
  3. Absolute liability, replacing a rule with five exceptions by a rule with none.
  4. The polluter pays and precautionary principles, which shift the burden and the cost.
  5. The public trust doctrine, which limits what the State itself may alienate.
  6. Continuing mandamus, retaining a case for years and issuing directions as the matter develops.
  7. Expert committees and amici curiae, to supply the scientific material a court does not have.
  8. Compensation and restitution, ordering polluters to pay for remediation.
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The statutory framework the courts have been enforcing: the Water Act, 1974; the Air Act, 1981; the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, an umbrella statute passed after Bhopal; the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, which created a specialised tribunal with judicial and expert members, realising a suggestion the Court had made in M. C. Mehta itself.

The criticism, which an honest essay must make.

  1. Judicial overreach. Closing industries, relocating them, ordering the conversion of a city's buses to CNG and administering the forests of India for twenty-five years are executive functions, and a court performing them has none of the executive's accountability or expertise.
  2. The enforcement gap. Orders are made and not complied with; pollution control boards are under-resourced; and the air quality of Indian cities has deteriorated through the entire period in which this jurisprudence has been built. A right repeatedly declared and inconsistently enforced is the real story.
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  1. Distributional cost. Closing a tannery cleans a river and puts its workers out of work, and the workers are rarely represented before the court that orders the closure. The doctrine of sustainable development is the courts' answer, but it is a principle rather than a method.
  2. Inconsistency. The same court that developed the precautionary principle has also cleared large projects, and the outcome can be hard to predict from the doctrine alone.

Conclusion. The judicial approach has been creative, purposive and, by international standards, remarkable: India has a constitutional right to a clean environment that no legislature ever enacted. Its weakness is the mirror image of its strength. Because the law came from the courts rather than from the political process, it has never had to be paid for, and the machinery of enforcement, which only the executive and the legislature can build, has never been built to match it.

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20.Write an essay on English as a global language.[12]

Answer

The proposition. English is the world's lingua franca: not the language with the most native speakers, which is Mandarin, but the one most widely used as a second language, and the default medium of international communication in science, business, aviation, diplomacy and the internet. The phrase is the title of David Crystal's English as a Global Language (1997), which sets out the argument in its modern form.

How it happened. Crystal's answer is that a language becomes global not because of any quality in the language itself but because of the power of the people who speak it, and that power has been of four kinds:

  1. Political and military. The British Empire carried English to every continent, so that at its height a quarter of the world's population was governed in English.
  2. Economic and technological. The industrial revolution began in Britain, and the twentieth century belonged to the United States. The language of the dominant economy becomes the language of trade.
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  1. Scientific. The great majority of scientific papers are published in English, and a scientist who cannot read it is cut off from the field.
  2. Cultural and technological reach: cinema, popular music, and then the internet, which began as an American network and whose early content was overwhelmingly in English.

To these should be added its role as the language of international institutions, of civil aviation, where ICAO requires English for radio communication, and of maritime communication.

English in India. The Indian position is the most interesting part of the essay for a law student, and it is where the marks are.

  • The Constitution made Hindi in Devanagari the official language of the Union under Article 343, with English to continue for fifteen years; the Official Languages Act, 1963, provided for English to continue indefinitely as an associate official language, which is where matters still stand.
  • Article 351 directs the Union to promote the spread of Hindi; the Eighth Schedule now lists twenty-two languages.
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  • Article 348 is the provision that matters most here: the proceedings of the Supreme Court and of every High Court, and the authoritative texts of Bills, Acts, Ordinances, orders, rules and regulations, shall be in English, unless Parliament otherwise provides, and a Governor may with the President's consent authorise the use of Hindi or another State language in the High Court, though not for judgments unless further provided.
  • English is therefore the working language of the higher Indian judiciary as a matter of constitutional command, and that has consequences a legal-language paper is entitled to ask about.
  • English functions as a link language between States whose regional languages differ, and it is the language of higher education, of the professions and of most white-collar employment.

The case in favour.

  1. Access. English opens scholarship, science, technology and international employment to those who have it.
  2. A neutral link. In a country of twenty-two scheduled languages, English is nobody's mother tongue and therefore favours no region, which is precisely the argument the non-Hindi-speaking States made in the 1960s and which kept English in the Official Languages Act.
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  1. Mobility. It is the single largest determinant of employability in the Indian service economy.
  2. The law. Indian legal literature, the reports, the statutes in their authoritative text, and the entire body of received common law, is in English.

The case against.

  1. Linguistic imperialism. Robert Phillipson's Linguistic Imperialism (1992) argues that the global spread of English is not neutral but reproduces inequality between nations and within them.
  2. Language death. UNESCO estimates that a large proportion of the world's languages will not survive the century, and the dominance of a few global languages is part of the cause.
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  1. Inequality within India. The gap between the English-medium school and the vernacular-medium school is one of the sharpest lines of advantage in Indian life, and it is inherited.
  2. Access to justice, which is the point a law student should make and almost nobody does. The courts whose judgments decide Indian lives are constitutionally required to work in a language most Indian litigants do not speak. A litigant in a High Court may sit through his own case without understanding a word of it. This is why the Supreme Court has begun translating its judgments into the scheduled languages, and why simplification of legal language is a live reform question rather than an aesthetic one.

Conclusion. English in India is neither a foreign imposition nor a native language; it is an Indian language with a foreign origin, spoken by more people in India than in England, and now producing its own literature and its own standard. The question is no longer whether India should use English but who gets to. So long as it remains the language of the courts, the universities and the professions, access to it is access to power, and the argument about English is really an argument about equality.

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21.Explain the guidelines laid down in Vaisakha v/s State of Rajasthan.[12]

Answer

Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal. The paper prints the name as "Vaisakha".

The background. Bhanwari Devi was a saathin, a village-level social worker in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme. In the course of her work she tried to prevent the child marriage of an infant girl in a village family, and in 1992, in revenge, she was gang-raped by men of that family. The trial court acquitted the accused in 1995. A writ petition under Article 32 was then filed by Vishaka, a women's rights group, with other organisations, as a class action, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain protection for working women generally, on the footing that she had been attacked because of her work and that the State, as her employer, had failed to protect her.

The holdings that support the guidelines.

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  1. Sexual harassment at the workplace violates fundamental rights: equality under Articles 14 and 15, the right to practise any profession or carry on any occupation under Article 19(1)(g), because a hostile environment drives women out of work, and the right to life with dignity under Article 21.
  2. International law may fill a domestic vacuum. In the absence of enacted law, international conventions consistent with the fundamental rights and ratified by India, here the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), ratified in 1993, may be read into Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21, relying on Article 51(c), which directs the State to foster respect for international law, and Article 253, which empowers Parliament to legislate to implement treaties.
  3. The guidelines are binding under Article 141 and are to operate "until suitable legislation is enacted to occupy the field".

The guidelines.

  1. Duty of the employer. It is the duty of every employer, in the public and the private sector, to prevent or deter the commission of acts of sexual harassment and to provide procedures for the resolution, settlement or prosecution of complaints.
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  1. Definition. Sexual harassment means unwelcome sexually determined behaviour, whether direct or by implication, comprising physical contact and advances; a demand or request for sexual favours; sexually coloured remarks; showing pornography; and any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.
  2. Preventive steps. The prohibition must be notified, published and circulated in appropriate ways; the conduct rules of government servants must include the prohibition and provide penalties; standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, must be amended accordingly in private employment; and working conditions must not be hostile to women.
  3. Criminal proceedings. Where the conduct amounts to a specific offence under the penal law, the employer must initiate action by complaining to the appropriate authority, and must ensure that victims and witnesses are not victimised or discriminated against, with the option of the transfer of the victim or of the offender.
  4. Disciplinary action must be taken where the conduct amounts to misconduct under the service rules.
  5. Complaint mechanism. An appropriate complaint mechanism must exist in the employer's organisation, providing for the time-bound treatment of complaints.
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  1. Complaints Committee. It must be headed by a woman, with not less than half its members women, and must involve a third party, such as a non-governmental organisation familiar with the issue, to prevent undue pressure from senior levels; it must submit an annual report to the Government.
  2. Workers' initiative. Employees must be allowed to raise the issue at workers' meetings and other appropriate forums, and it must be affirmatively discussed in employer-employee meetings.
  3. Awareness. Awareness of the rights of female employees must be created by prominently notifying the guidelines.
  4. Third parties. Where the act is committed by a person other than an employee, the employer must take necessary and reasonable steps to assist the affected person.
  5. Government action. The Central and State Governments should consider adopting suitable measures, including legislation, to ensure that private employers observe the guidelines.
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What followed. The guidelines were applied and strengthened in Apparel Export Promotion Council v. A. K. Chopra (1999) and Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India (2013). Sixteen years after the judgment, Parliament enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, in force from 9 December 2013, which now governs the field: it requires an Internal Complaints Committee in every workplace with ten or more employees and a Local Committee in each district for the unorganised sector and smaller establishments, and it prescribes the inquiry procedure, time limits, interim reliefs and penalties.

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22.Explain the guidelines laid down in D.K. Basu v/s State of West Bengal.[12]

Answer

Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, (1997) 1 SCC 416, decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.

The background. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, wrote a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986 drawing attention to newspaper reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and asking that it be treated as a writ petition under the Court's epistolary jurisdiction. It was so treated. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri about a custodial death at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to every State Government and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits showing that custodial deaths were continuing.

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The reasoning. The Court described custodial torture as "a naked violation of human dignity", and held that the right guaranteed by Article 21 is not lost by a convict, an undertrial, a detenu or any other prisoner in custody, and that Article 22(1) guarantees the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and to consult a legal practitioner. It stressed why declarations alone had failed: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so the protection has to operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on proof afterwards.

The eleven guidelines, to be followed in all cases of arrest and detention as preventive measures:

  1. Police personnel carrying out the arrest and handling the interrogation must bear accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with their designations, and the particulars of all such personnel must be recorded in a register.
  2. The arresting officer shall prepare a memo of arrest at the time of arrest, attested by at least one witness, being a family member of the arrestee or a respectable person of the locality, and countersigned by the arrestee, bearing the date and time of arrest.
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  1. A person arrested or detained is entitled to have one friend, relative or other person known to him informed, as soon as practicable, of the arrest and of the place of detention.
  2. Where that person lives outside the district, the time and place of arrest and the venue of custody must be notified through the Legal Aid Organisation of the district and the police station of the area, telegraphically, within 8 to 12 hours of the arrest.
  3. The person arrested must be made aware of this right as soon as he is arrested or detained.
  4. An entry must be made in the diary at the place of detention recording the arrest, the name of the person informed, and the particulars of the police officials in whose custody the arrestee is.
  5. The arrestee shall, on request, be examined at the time of arrest, and any injuries on his body recorded; the "Inspection Memo" must be signed by the arrestee and the arresting officer, and a copy supplied to the arrestee.
  6. The arrestee must be medically examined every 48 hours during custody by a doctor on a panel of approved doctors appointed by the Director, Health Services of the State or Union Territory.
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  1. Copies of all documents, including the memo of arrest, must be sent to the Illaqa Magistrate for his record.
  2. The arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation.
  3. A police control room must be provided at every district and State headquarters, to which the arresting officer must communicate the fact and place of arrest within 12 hours, and where it must be displayed on a conspicuous notice board.

The Court directed that these be followed in all cases, that breach would render the official liable for departmental action and for contempt of court, and that the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards.

Compensation. The Court held that monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy in public law for an established infringement of Article 21; that this is distinct from a private law claim in tort; that it rests on strict liability, to which sovereign immunity is no defence; and that the State may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993).

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What followed. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, by the amendment of 2008, which inserted Section 41B (identification and memo of arrest), Section 41D (right to meet an advocate during interrogation), Section 50A (duty to inform a nominated person) and Section 55A (duty to care for the health and safety of the accused). The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries these safeguards forward. In 2015 the Court directed the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, a direction taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020).

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23.Explain the importance of law reports and mention the features of two law reports.[12]

Answer

Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision considered of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the arguments, the judgment of the court and the order made, edited and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent in later cases.

A law report is not the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, and not a transcript, which is a verbatim note of proceedings. It is selective and edited: only a small fraction of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus which the judgment does not contain.

The importance of law reports:

  1. They make the doctrine of precedent workable. Stare decisis requires like cases to be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found. Law reporting is the machinery that turns the doctrine from a principle into a practice.
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  1. They make the law certain and predictable. A lawyer can advise, and a citizen can order his affairs, only because the decisions of the courts are accessible and can be relied on.
  2. They secure equality before the law. If decisions were unreported, similar cases would be decided differently by different judges and nobody would know, and Article 14 would be an aspiration.
  3. They are a principal source of law. In a common law system judge-made law is real law, and the reports are where it is stated. Almost the whole of Indian tort law, and much of constitutional and administrative law, exists only in the reports.
  4. They make the judiciary accountable. A judgment that is published can be criticised by the bar, by academics and by the press, and a judge writes knowing that it will be.
  5. They are the material of legal education and research. Every case on this paper is known to you because it was reported.

Two law reports, with their features.

(1) All India Reporter (AIR).

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  • Founded at Nagpur in 1914 by V. V. Chitaley; the oldest continuously published general law report in India and the most widely cited.
  • Coverage: the Supreme Court, all the High Courts, and historically the Federal Court and the Privy Council, in separate court-wise volumes; it also prints Central and State legislation.
  • Citation form: the year first, without brackets, then the report, then the court, then the page: AIR 1997 SC 610.
  • Companion publications: the Criminal Law Journal (Cri LJ), and the AIR Manual, a subject-arranged consolidation of Indian statutes with case annotations, which is the standard first stop in a legal search.
  • Status: a private publication.

(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC).

  • Published by the Eastern Book Company, Lucknow, since 1969.
  • Coverage: the decisions of the Supreme Court of India exclusively, and it is generally regarded as the most complete and accurate text of the Court's judgments; it is the report most often cited in the courts today.
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  • Citation form: the year in brackets, then the volume, then the report, then the page: (1997) 6 SCC 241, which is Vishaka. The volume number is needed because several numbered volumes are published in a year.
  • Companion series: SCC (Cri) for criminal cases, SCC (L&S) for service law, and the database SCC Online.
  • Status: likewise a private publication.

Two others worth naming in a line. Supreme Court Reports (SCR), the official report published under the authority of the Supreme Court, which should be cited where a case appears in it; and Indian Law Reports (ILR), published by the State Governments under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875, section 3 of which provides that no court is bound to hear cited, as a report of a High Court decision, any report other than the ILR where one exists.

What a properly reported case contains, and why: the court and judges, which fix the authority of the decision; the parties and date; catchwords and a headnote, written by the editor as a finding aid; the cases cited; the counsel; the facts and procedural history; the judgments verbatim, including any dissent; and the order with costs.

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24.Read the given passage and answer the question given below: Ever since I can remember, I always felt I was stupid, really stupid. I lost my father when I was three. Since I was a sick child, a polio victim, I lived with my grandmother in Mumbai so I could avail of the metro's advanced medical facilities.[12]

  • a) The writer believed that she was stupid.
  • b) The writer flinched as she saw her friend walking towards her.
  • c) The writer lacked interest in her studies.
  • d) The writer was not a very confident or assertive girl.
  • e) Why did the writes live with her grandmother?
  • f) Who came to live with the writer when she was 10 years old?

Answer

I remember being on the streets all day, playing or lazing around. When I turned ten, my mother and my sister came to live in Mumbai too.

My sister was a bright student, always securing high grades. She and my mother encouraged me to study, but I just could not bring myself to concentrate on any subject.

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I would get bored and feel sleepy when forced to open my books. After innumerable lectures on the importance of studying had failed, mother tried threats as well, but nothing worked.

I truly believed I was stupid; no matter how much I worked, it wouldn't help. One afternoon, as always, I was sitting under a tree in the school premises eating potato wafers when I saw a former classmate approaching me.

Aditi and I had been in the same class the year before. I had failed sixth grade and had to repeat the year; Aditi had topped the class and was the brightest student of the seventh grade too.

I flinched a little Aditi as I saw her walk towards me. 'Hi,' she said.

'Hi,' I replied, but not with much enthusiasm; I wanted her to leave. I continued to eat my chips.

Ignoring my coldness, she sat down next to me. For five minutes neither of us spoke and then she asked, 'Is Devika your real sister?' 'Yes, she is, 'I answered.

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So how come she doesn't teach you so that you too can do well? she asked.

I peered at her, wondering if she was making fun of me, but all I could see on her face was earnestness. No, she is not trying to tease me.

I decided. This time I answered a little more warmly, 'She tries to, but I don't like studying.' 'Why not?

I'm sure you can get good grades too,' she said emphatically. 'No, I can't.

I have no brains. God forgot to give me brains, health or beauty.

He gave me nothing.' "That's not true. And anyway, health and beauty can't be helped, but God has given brains to everyone, we only have to learn to use it.' I shook my head, 'No, I have difficulty in concentrating, and books bore me; there is no hope for me.

Please leave me alone. I am stupid, and always will be.' With the gentlest tone that she could muster she said, 'I can prove it to you that you are not stupid.

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Give me one chance, I will teach you to study.' Though I was softening from inside, I still held on to my low self-esteem. 'You'll be wasting your time.

I cannot study, I am not as bright as you are nor lucky as my sister,' I said 'Let me try and help you, please. I will show you the right way to study.

You just have to cooperate with me. Will you try?' Her belief in me proved more powerful than my doubts about myself.

She won and I relented. A4.1 Give reasons for the following-

(a) Give a reason for the following: the writer believed that she was stupid.

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She believed it because nothing in her experience had ever contradicted it and everything appeared to confirm it. She says that ever since she can remember she always felt she was stupid; she could not bring myself to concentrate on any subject, got bored and felt sleepy when forced to open her books, and failed the sixth grade and had to repeat the year. The comparison at home made it worse: her sister Devika was a bright student, always securing high grades, so the writer had a daily measure of her own failure. Encouragement, "innumerable lectures on the importance of studying", and finally her mother's threats had all failed, and the conclusion she drew was that the fault lay in her: "no matter how much I worked, it wouldn't help."

(b) Give a reason for the following: the writer flinched as she saw her friend walking towards her.

She flinched because Aditi's presence was a reminder of her own failure. The two had been in the same class the year before; the writer had failed sixth grade and had to repeat the year, while Aditi had topped the class and was the brightest student of the seventh grade too. Meeting the girl who had gone on ahead of her forced the comparison on her, and she expected either pity or mockery. That is why she answered "not with much enthusiasm", why she wanted her to leave, and why she went on eating her chips instead of speaking.

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(c) Give a reason for the following: the writer lacked interest in her studies.

The passage gives both an immediate and an underlying reason. Immediately, she says that she could not concentrate, that she would get bored and feel sleepy when forced to open her books, and that "books bore me". Underneath that lay her belief about herself: she was convinced she had "no brains" and that God had given her nothing, so that study seemed pointless to her, and she said in terms, "there is no hope for me". Her early years support the picture: she had lost her father at three, had been a sick child and a polio victim, and remembered being on the streets all day, playing or lazing around, with no habit of study formed.

(d) Give a reason for the following: the writer was not a very confident or assertive girl.

Her lack of confidence shows in what she says and in how she behaves. She says of herself, "I have no brains. God forgot to give me brains, health or beauty. He gave me nothing", and "I am stupid, and always will be." She measures herself against others and always loses: "I am not as bright as you are nor lucky as my sister." She holds on to what the passage itself calls her "low self-esteem".

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Her lack of assertiveness shows in the scene under the tree. She wanted Aditi to leave and did not say so, expressing it only by coldness and by going on eating; she sat in silence for five minutes; and when Aditi persisted, "she won and I relented." The last sentence of the passage is the proof of both: "Her belief in me proved more powerful than my doubts about myself."

(e) Why did the writer live with her grandmother?

Because she was a sick child, a polio victim, and she lived with her grandmother in Mumbai so that she could avail of the metro's advanced medical facilities. Her father had died when she was three.

(f) Who came to live with the writer when she was ten years old?

Her mother and her sister, who came to live in Mumbai when she turned ten. Her sister is named later in the passage as Devika.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2023-24 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 24 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

11 August 2026.

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