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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2021-22 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2021-22 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2021-22 examination.

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Contents

The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2021-22 examination, in the order it was set.

MarksPage

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2021-22 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

30 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Multiple Choice Questions

20 questions · 30 Marks

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1.They said that he was innocent. (Change the voice) (a) He was said to be innocent (b) He was innocent said by them (c) He was proved innocent (d) It was said that he was innocent

Answer

The answer is (d) It was said that he was innocent.

The object of the verb said is the whole noun clause "that he was innocent". A change of voice moves that object into the subject position, and because a clause cannot comfortably stand at the head of a sentence, English supplies the anticipatory "it": It was said (by them) that he was innocent. The tense is preserved, said becoming was said, and the subordinate clause is untouched.

Why the others are wrong, and one qualification:

  • (b) He was innocent said by them is not a sentence. It has no construction at all.
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  • (c) He was proved innocent changes the meaning. Saying a man is innocent and proving him innocent are different events, and a transformation may not alter the sense.
  • (a) He was said to be innocent is correct English, and this is the qualification the question does not allow for. It is the personal passive, formed by lifting the subject of the subordinate clause into the main clause and turning the clause into an infinitive phrase. It is a legitimate passive of this sentence. It is not the answer here only because it involves a further transformation beyond the change of voice, whereas (d) is the direct passive with the clause left intact.
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2.She told me ______ she ______ her parents at the weekend (Fill in the blank) (a) That; has visited (b) That; had visited (c) Saying; will be visiting (d) None of the above

Answer

The answer is (b) That; had visited.

Two rules operate together.

The first blank takes "that", because tell introduces reported speech through the conjunction that, which begins the noun clause serving as its object. Saying is a participle and cannot join two clauses.

The second blank takes "had visited" because of the sequence of tenses in reported speech: when the reporting verb is in the past (told), the verb in the reported clause moves one step back in time. A present perfect (has visited) becomes a past perfect (had visited).

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) That; has visited gets the conjunction right and the tense wrong. She told me that she has visited mixes a past reporting verb with a present perfect and breaks the sequence of tenses.
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  • (c) Saying; will be visiting fails twice: saying cannot introduce a clause, and will is never used after a past reporting verb, which requires would.
  • (d) None of the above is wrong because (b) is correct.
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3.Very few countries are as rich as America. (Change the degree) (a) Very few countries are rich than America (b) Very few countries are so rich as America (c) Very few countries are better than America (d) America is richer than other countries

Answer

The answer is (d) America is richer than other countries.

The printed sentence is in the positive degree, in the "very few ... as ... as" frame. Changing it to the comparative requires three things: the subject of the comparison moves to the front (America), the adjective takes the comparative form (richer), and the class it is compared with follows than.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) Very few countries are rich than America is ungrammatical. Than requires a comparative form, so it would have to be richer than, and even corrected it says the opposite of the original.
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  • (b) Very few countries are so rich as America is still the positive degree. Substituting so ... as for as ... as is a change of idiom, not a change of degree, so it does not answer the question at all.
  • (c) Very few countries are better than America replaces rich with better, which is the comparative of good. The transformation must keep the adjective's meaning, and rich and good are not the same thing.
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4.A writ which is issued by a superior court, directing inferior court not to exercise jurisdiction which is not legally vested in it. (a) Certiorari (b) Prohibition (c) Mandamus (d) Quo warranto

Answer

The answer is (b) Prohibition.

Prohibition is issued by a superior court to an inferior court or tribunal forbidding it to continue proceedings in excess of its jurisdiction. It is preventive: it stops the inferior court from doing what it has no power to do, and it can therefore be issued only while the proceedings are still pending.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) Certiorari also polices jurisdiction, but it is curative, not preventive. It is issued after the inferior court has passed its order, and it quashes that order. The difference between prohibition and certiorari is entirely one of timing.
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  • (c) Mandamus commands a public authority, an inferior court or a tribunal to perform a public duty it has refused or failed to perform. It compels action; prohibition forbids it.
  • (d) Quo warranto is issued against a person holding a public office, calling on him to show by what authority he holds it. It concerns the holder of an office, not the jurisdiction of a court.
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5.In Jure Non Remota Causa Sed Proxima Spectatur means (a) In law not the remote but the proximate cause is looked at. (b) In law the proximate cause is taken into consideration. (c) In law the Proximate cause is never taken into consideration. (d) In law the Proximate cause is relevant in cases relating to negligence.

Answer

The answer is (a) In law not the remote but the proximate cause is looked at.

This is the literal and complete translation, and it is the only option that renders the contrast the maxim actually draws. In jure means "in law"; non remota causa means "not the remote cause"; sed proxima means "but the proximate"; spectatur means "is looked at" or "is regarded".

Why the others are wrong:

  • (b) is true as far as it goes, but it is incomplete. It states half the maxim and drops the contrast with the remote cause, which is the whole point of it.
  • (c) states the opposite of the maxim.
  • (d) is too narrow. The maxim is a general principle of causation running through contract, tort, insurance and criminal law; it is not confined to negligence.
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6.Actio personalis moritur cum persona means (a) Action of person results in death (b) Personal right of action dies with the person (c) Action of law is faster for some persons (d) None of the above

Answer

The answer is (b) Personal right of action dies with the person.

The maxim translates literally as "a personal action dies with the person". At common law, a personal right of action, in tort, came to an end on the death of either the injured party or the wrongdoer, so that neither the deceased's estate could sue nor could it be sued.

Why the others are wrong: (a) and (c) are not translations of anything; they read the Latin word actio as though it meant a physical act, and personalis as though it referred to particular persons. (d) is wrong because (b) is correct.

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7.D.K. Basu V/s State of West Bengal deals with (a) Death in Custodial Lockup (b) Sexual Harassment at workplace (c) Minors contract is void ab initio (d) Environmental Protection

Answer

The answer is (a) Death in Custodial Lockup.

D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, (1997) 1 SCC 416, arose from a letter written to the Chief Justice of India in 1986 by D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, drawing attention to newspaper reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody. The letter was treated as a writ petition under Article 32. The Supreme Court held that custodial torture violates Article 21, laid down eleven guidelines to be observed in every arrest and detention, and held that compensation may be awarded in public law, to which sovereign immunity is no defence.

Why the others are wrong, and what each one is:

  • (b) Sexual harassment at the workplace is Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided the same year, which laid down the Vishaka Guidelines, since replaced by the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.
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  • (c) A minor's contract is void ab initio is Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), a decision of the Privy Council.
  • (d) Environmental protection is the M. C. Mehta line of cases, of which the Oleum Gas Leak case, M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987), laid down the rule of absolute liability.
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8.'Act of God' is known by the name: (a) Vis major (b) Damnum fatale (c) Vis major or Damnum fatale (d) Damnum sine injuria

Answer

The answer is (c) Vis major or Damnum fatale.

An Act of God, in law, is an event due to natural causes, directly and exclusively, without human intervention, which could not have been prevented by any amount of foresight, pains and care reasonably to be expected. Earthquakes, extraordinary rainfall, lightning and tempests are the standard instances.

It has two Latin names, and both are in use:

  • Vis major, "a greater force", the term used in Roman law and in the English common law; and
  • Damnum fatale, "loss by fate", the term used in Scots law.

Because both name the same thing, options (a) and (b) are each incomplete and (c) is the answer.

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Why (d) is wrong: damnum sine injuria means damage without the violation of a legal right, which is a wholly different idea. It describes a loss for which no action lies because no right has been infringed, as in the Gloucester Grammar School case, where a rival school lawfully took away the plaintiff's pupils.

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9.What does the word amicus curia mean? (a) Friendship is important (b) American Courts are superior (c) Friend of the Court (d) Courts must solve matters amicably

Answer

The answer is (c) Friend of the Court.

Amicus curiae is Latin for "friend of the court". It describes a person, usually a senior advocate, who is not a party to the proceeding and who is asked by the court, or permitted by it, to assist the court on a question of law or fact.

Why the others are wrong: (a) and (d) guess at the sense of amicus from the English word amicable and ignore curiae entirely; (b) confuses amicus with America, which has no connection with it.

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10.What is the full form of ILR (a) Indian Law Reporter (b) Indian Legal Report (c) International Law Reader (d) Indian Legal Review

Answer

The correct name of the report is the Indian Law Reports, and it is not among the options. The nearest printed option, and the one the key must intend, is (a) Indian Law Reporter.

The Indian Law Reports are published by the State Governments under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875, and report the decisions of the High Courts in series named after each court: ILR Bombay, ILR Calcutta, ILR Madras, ILR Allahabad and so on. A citation reads ILR 30 Cal 539, which is volume 30 of the Calcutta series at page 539, and is where Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose is reported.

Why the others are wrong: (b) Indian Legal Report, (c) International Law Reader and (d) Indian Legal Review are not the names of any established Indian law report.

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11.According to principle of vicarious liability a master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servants, is fixed by the maxim of. (a) Caveat emptor (b) Respondeat superior (c) Rex non protest peccare (d) Audi alterem partem

Answer

The answer is (b) Respondeat superior.

Respondeat superior means "let the superior answer" or "let the principal be liable". It is the maxim on which vicarious liability rests: a master is answerable for a tort committed by his servant in the course of employment, and is liable jointly with the servant, although the master himself is entirely without fault.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) Caveat emptor, "let the buyer beware", is a rule of the law of sale: the buyer must satisfy himself as to the quality and fitness of what he buys, subject now to wide statutory exceptions in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, and to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
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  • (c) Rex non potest peccare, "the King can do no wrong", is the maxim of sovereign immunity, not of vicarious liability. The paper prints it as "Rex non protest peccare".
  • (d) Audi alteram partem, "hear the other side", is a rule of natural justice.
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12.______ is the extent of the authority of a Court to administer justice (a) Jurisdiction (b) Boundaries (c) Limitation (d) Complaint

Answer

The answer is (a) Jurisdiction.

Jurisdiction is the extent of the authority of a court to hear and decide a matter and to grant relief. It is conferred by statute or by the Constitution and cannot be created by the consent of the parties, nor taken away by their agreement.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (b) Boundaries is not a legal term of art. The territorial dimension of jurisdiction exists, but "boundaries" does not name the concept.
  • (c) Limitation is the period of time within which a suit, appeal or application must be brought, governed by the Limitation Act, 1963. It restricts when a court may be approached, not what it has power to decide.
  • (d) Complaint is the document or allegation by which a criminal proceeding is set in motion before a magistrate. It is a pleading, not a power.
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13.Mala fide means: (a) In good faith (b) In bad faith (c) In utmost good faith (d) Man of Faith

Answer

The answer is (b) In bad faith.

Mala fide is Latin for "in bad faith", that is, dishonestly, with an improper motive, or for a purpose other than the one for which a power was conferred. Its opposite is bona fide, "in good faith".

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) In good faith is bona fide, the exact opposite.
  • (c) In utmost good faith is uberrimae fidei, a distinct and stronger standard applying to particular contracts.
  • (d) Man of Faith is not a translation of anything; it mistakes fide for a noun describing a person.
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14.______ is a legal order whereby a person is either restrained from doing an act, or ordered to perform an act. (a) Certiorari (b) Writ (c) Injunction (d) Obiter Dictum

Answer

The answer is (c) Injunction.

An injunction is an order of a court directing a person to refrain from doing an act, or to do a particular act. The first is a prohibitory injunction and the second a mandatory injunction, and the definition in the question names both, which is what makes injunction the answer rather than any of the others.

Injunctions are governed by the Specific Relief Act, 1963, Sections 36 to 42, and, for temporary injunctions, by Order XXXIX of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) Certiorari is one particular writ, which quashes an order of an inferior court or tribunal. It does not direct a person to do or refrain from an act.
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  • (b) Writ is the wrong level of generality. A writ is a formal order of a constitutional court under Article 32 or 226, addressed characteristically to a public authority; an injunction is a remedy in ordinary civil proceedings, available against private persons. Some writs, such as mandamus and prohibition, do command and forbid, which is why the option is tempting, but the definition given, covering both restraint and command in one remedy, is the textbook definition of an injunction.
  • (d) Obiter dictum is not an order at all. It is an observation made by a judge by the way, which is not necessary for the decision and is therefore not binding.
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15.A defendant's written defence or pleading is called a: (a) Plaint (b) Affidavit (c) Written statement (d) Complaint

Answer

The answer is (c) Written statement.

In a civil suit the plaintiff files a plaint, and the defendant files a written statement, which is his answer to it. Both are pleadings within the meaning of Order VI Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which provides that "pleadings" means plaint or written statement. The written statement is governed by Order VIII.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) Plaint is the plaintiff's pleading, the document by which a suit is instituted, setting out the facts constituting the cause of action and the relief claimed.
  • (b) Affidavit is a statement of facts sworn on oath. It is evidence, not a pleading, and it is used to support an application, not to answer a suit.
  • (d) Complaint belongs to criminal procedure. It is an allegation made to a magistrate with a view to his taking action against a person, and it has no place in a civil suit.
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16.In the citation 1997 AIR SCW 04 what does "04" stand for? (a) Volume Number (b) Page Number (c) Journal Number (d) None of the above

Answer

The answer is (b) Page Number.

The citation breaks up as: 1997, the year of the volume; AIR SCW, the report, being the All India Reporter Supreme Court Weekly; and 04, the page of that volume at which the report of the case begins.

Why the others are wrong: (a) and (c) are wrong because AIR and its associated series are cited by year and page, with no volume or journal number between them; (d) is wrong because (b) is correct.

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17.Lawyers Collective is edited by (a) Ms. Indira Jaising (b) Manupatra (c) Mr. Tipugade (d) Mr. V. R. Manohar

Answer

The answer is (a) Ms. Indira Jaising.

The Lawyers Collective is a legal aid and human rights organisation founded in 1981 by the senior advocates Indira Jaising and Anand Grover, which published a monthly magazine of the same name. Indira Jaising was its editor. She was later the first woman to be appointed Additional Solicitor General of India, and was closely associated with the drafting of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (b) Manupatra is not a person. It is one of the two principal Indian online legal databases, the other being SCC Online.
  • (d) Mr. V. R. Manohar was a distinguished senior advocate of Nagpur, Advocate General of Maharashtra, and the editor of later editions of Ratanlal and Dhirajlal, the standard commentaries on the Penal Code and the Law of Evidence. He was not connected with this magazine.
  • (c) Mr. Tipugade is not associated with it.
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18.The Bar Council of India publishes a journal called (a) Indian Law Review (b) Journal of India (c) Indian Bar Review (d) None of the above

Answer

The answer is (c) Indian Bar Review.

The Indian Bar Review is the journal associated with the Bar Council of India, published through the Bar Council of India Trust. It carries academic articles, case comments and material on legal education and the legal profession, rather than reports of judgments.

Why the others are wrong: (a) Indian Law Review and (b) Journal of India are not publications of the Bar Council of India; (d) is wrong because (c) is correct.

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19.What is meant by ratio decidendi? (a) Friend of the court (b) Property divided by ratio (c) Rationale of the court (d) Judges expression

Answer

The answer is (c) Rationale of the court.

Ratio decidendi means literally "the reason for deciding". It is the principle of law on which the decision is based, the legal rule that was necessary to the court's conclusion on the facts before it. It is the ratio, and only the ratio, that is binding as precedent under the doctrine of stare decisis, and, for the Supreme Court, under Article 141 of the Constitution.

Why the others are wrong:

  • (a) Friend of the court is amicus curiae.
  • (b) Property divided by ratio reads the Latin ratio as though it meant an arithmetical proportion. It does not; here it means reason.
  • (d) Judges expression is closer to obiter dictum, an observation made by the way.
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20.Arbitration in India is governed by (a) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (b) Arbitration Act, 2019 (c) Arbitration, Conciliation and Mediation Act, 2012 (d) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1922

Answer

The answer is (a) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, is the governing statute. It consolidated and replaced three earlier enactments, the Arbitration Act, 1940, the Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937, and the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961, and it was based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration and the UNCITRAL Conciliation Rules.

Why the others are wrong: options (b), (c) and (d) name statutes that do not exist. Note that there is a New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019, and there are amendment Acts of 2015, 2019 and 2021 to the 1996 Act, which is probably where the distractor comes from, but the governing statute is the 1996 Act as amended.

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SECTION II

Descriptive Type Questions

10 questions · 30 Marks

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21.Explain the maxim Res Ipsa Loquitor.

Answer

Res ipsa loquitur, printed on the paper as "Res Ipsa Loquitor", means "the thing speaks for itself." It is a rule of evidence in the law of negligence: where an accident is of a kind that would not ordinarily happen without negligence, and the thing that caused it was under the exclusive control of the defendant, the accident itself is evidence of negligence, and the plaintiff need not prove the particular act or omission that caused it.

The three conditions, from Scott v. London and St Katherine Docks Co. (1865), where bags of sugar fell from a warehouse on to a customs officer passing below:

  1. The thing causing the damage must be under the control of the defendant or his servants;
  2. the accident must be such as would not in the ordinary course of things happen if those in control had used proper care; and
  3. there must be no explanation of how the accident happened, the cause being unknown to the plaintiff.
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Effect. Once the maxim applies, the evidential burden shifts: the defendant must show that the accident happened without negligence on his part, and if he offers no explanation the court may infer negligence and find for the plaintiff.

Cases:

  • Byrne v. Boadle (1863): a barrel of flour rolled out of a first-floor window of the defendant's warehouse and struck the plaintiff. Held, the plaintiff need not prove how it came to fall; barrels do not roll out of warehouses unless somebody is negligent.
  • Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti (1966): the Clock Tower in Chandni Chowk, eighty years old and past the life of its mortar, collapsed and killed several people. The Supreme Court applied the maxim, the structure being in the exclusive control of the Corporation and its collapse not an ordinary event.
  • Pushpabai Purshottam Udeshi v. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co. (1977): the Supreme Court applied the maxim to a motor accident in which the vehicle left the road and struck a tree.
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22.Explain the maxims of natural justice.

Answer

Natural justice is the body of minimum standards of fair procedure which a court, tribunal or administrative authority must observe when deciding a matter affecting the rights of a person. It is not written in any statute; it is implied by the courts into every power that affects rights, unless the statute excludes it in clear terms. There are two classical maxims and, in modern Indian law, a third requirement.

1. Nemo judex in causa sua: no one shall be a judge in his own cause. This is the rule against bias. A person who decides must be, and must appear to be, disinterested. The forms of bias are:

  • Pecuniary bias: any financial interest, however small, disqualifies automatically. In Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (1852) decrees of the Lord Chancellor were set aside because he held shares in the company, although nobody suggested he had in fact been influenced.
  • Personal bias: relationship, friendship, hostility or professional connection with a party. Manak Lal v. Dr Prem Chand (1957).
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  • Subject-matter bias: a direct interest in the outcome or in the issue.
  • Departmental or policy bias, and the problem of the person who investigates and then adjudicates. A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969), where a member of the selection board was himself a candidate, is the leading Indian authority, and it is also the case that abolished the old distinction between judicial and administrative functions for this purpose.

The governing statement is from R v. Sussex Justices, ex parte McCarthy (1924): "justice should not only be done, but should manifestly and undoubtedly be seen to be done." The test is not whether the decision-maker was in fact biased but whether there was a real likelihood, or a reasonable apprehension, of bias.

2. Audi alteram partem: hear the other side. No one shall be condemned unheard. This rule has content, and the content is what earns the marks:

  • Notice of the case, sufficiently specific and in time to allow an answer;
  • an opportunity to be heard, orally where the matter requires it;
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  • disclosure of the material relied on, so that a decision may not rest on evidence the affected person has not seen;
  • an opportunity to cross-examine where the case rests on the evidence of witnesses;
  • legal representation, where the issues are complex or the other side is represented;
  • a decision by the authority that heard the case, so that "he who decides must hear".

Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863), where a house was demolished without notice, is the classical case; Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) revived the principle in modern administrative law; and in India Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) held that the procedure contemplated by Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable, which imports natural justice into the Constitution itself.

3. Reasoned decisions. Indian law now treats the duty to give reasons as a third limb. A speaking order allows the affected person to know why he lost and permits meaningful appeal or review. Siemens Engineering and Manufacturing Co. v. Union of India (1976) describes the recording of reasons as a basic principle of natural justice.

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Exceptions. Natural justice is excluded or curtailed where there is a genuine emergency requiring immediate action, such as the seizure of contaminated food; where the statute expressly excludes it, subject to Article 14; where confidentiality or state security is involved; where compliance is impracticable, as with very large numbers of persons; in matters of academic evaluation; and where a hearing would be a useless formality because the outcome could not have been different, though Indian courts apply that last exception narrowly.

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23.Write about the One India One People.

Answer

One India One People is an English-language monthly magazine published from Mumbai by the One India One People Foundation, started in 1997 by the industrialist Sadanand A. Shetty.

Its purpose. It is a national-integration magazine. Its declared object is to promote unity in diversity, to make the reader conscious of being an Indian before anything else, and to hold up the rights and, above all, the duties of the citizen under the Constitution. Its name states the argument: one country, and one people within it.

Its features.

  1. Every issue is built around a single theme. The cover story takes up one national question, education, water, the girl child, the judiciary, defence, agriculture, and the articles in the issue are commissioned around it rather than gathered at random.
  2. Its contributors are specialists rather than staff reporters, so the writing is informed comment rather than news reporting.
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  1. It closes with a "Great Indians" feature, short profiles of Indians who deserve to be better known, characteristically including a gallantry-award winner from the armed forces alongside figures from public life and social work.
  2. It carries no crime reporting or film coverage, and is not tied to a political party. It is closer to a journal of opinion than to a news weekly.
  3. It is addressed to the general educated reader, in plain English, and is used in schools and colleges for exactly that reason.
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24.What is the importance of law report?

Answer

A law report is a published record of a judicial decision considered important enough to be reported, setting out the material facts, the arguments, the judgment and the order, edited and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent.

Its importance lies in six things.

  1. It makes the doctrine of precedent workable. Stare decisis requires like cases to be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found. Law reporting is the machinery that turns the doctrine from a principle into a practice.
  2. It makes the law certain and predictable. A lawyer can advise a client, and a citizen can order his affairs, only because the decisions of the courts are accessible and can be relied on.
  3. It secures equality before the law. If decisions were unreported, similar cases would be decided differently by different judges without anyone knowing, and Article 14 would be an aspiration.
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  1. It is a principal source of law. In a common law system judge-made law is real law, and the reports are where it is stated. Much of Indian tort law, and much of constitutional and administrative law, exists only in the reports.
  2. It makes the judiciary accountable. A judgment that is published can be criticised, by the bar, by academics and by the press, and a judge writes knowing that it will be.
  3. It is the material of legal education and research. Every case in this paper, D. K. Basu, Vishaka, Ajay Hasia, Mohori Bibee, is known to you because it was reported.

What a properly reported case contains, and why each part is there: the court and judges, which fix the authority of the decision; the parties and date; catchwords and a headnote, written by the editor as a finding aid; the cases cited; the counsel who appeared; the facts and procedural history; the judgments verbatim, including any dissent; and the order with costs.

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25.Distinguish between discharge and acquittal.

Answer

Discharge is an order made before the charge is framed, releasing the accused because the material placed before the court does not disclose sufficient ground for proceeding against him. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the provisions were Section 227 in a sessions trial, Section 239 in a warrant case on a police report and Section 245 in a warrant case on a complaint.

Acquittal is the finding, at the conclusion of a trial, that the accused is not guilty, recorded where the prosecution has failed to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt. The provisions were Sections 232 and 235(1) in a sessions trial and Section 248(1) in a warrant case.

The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, with effect from 1 July 2024, which carries the same scheme forward.

The distinction:

DischargeAcquittal
StageBefore the charge is framedAfter the trial is concluded
BasisNo sufficient ground to proceedThe charge is not proved beyond reasonable doubt
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DischargeAcquittal
EvidenceNo evidence has been recorded; the court looks at the material on recordEvidence has been led and tested by cross-examination
NatureNot a decision on the meritsA decision on the merits
TestWhether a prima facie case or grave suspicion existsWhether guilt is established beyond reasonable doubt
EffectProceedings may be revived on fresh materialBar of double jeopardy applies; only an appeal lies
Remedy against itRevisionAppeal against acquittal
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26.Write a short essay on 'Importance of legal education'.

Answer

Legal education is the systematic training that produces the lawyers, judges, law officers, legislators and administrators on whom the legal system depends. Its importance is not confined to the profession it feeds, and the argument for it falls under six heads.

1. It sustains the rule of law. A constitution and a body of statutes are only words until there are people trained to apply them. A country gets the legal system its law schools produce, and every judge on its highest court was once a first-year student.

2. It is the foundation of access to justice. Article 39A of the Constitution directs the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid, and the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, gives effect to it. The system depends on lawyers who know how to use it and who are willing to appear for those who cannot pay. Clinical legal education, legal aid clinics and moot courts exist precisely to turn that duty into a habit while a student is still learning.

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3. It creates legal awareness in the citizen. A right nobody knows about is not exercised. Legal literacy programmes, and the popular legal writing represented by magazines such as Law Teller, are extensions of legal education outside the classroom, and they matter most to the people least able to buy advice.

4. It is training in a method, not merely in a body of rules. What a law course teaches is how to read a difficult text, how to distinguish a fact from an inference, how to argue in the alternative, and how to state a case against oneself before answering it. Those skills outlast every statute on the syllabus, and they are why law graduates are found in journalism, administration, business and politics as often as in court.

5. It is a discipline of language. A lawyer's product is prose: a plaint, an opinion, a contract, a judgment. A subject like this one exists because a lawyer who cannot write clearly cannot practise safely, and because ambiguity in a document is where litigation begins.

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6. It is an instrument of social change. Law reform in India, on dowry, on domestic violence, on sexual harassment at the workplace, on environmental protection, has repeatedly begun in the writing and the litigation of lawyers and academics rather than in the legislature. Vishaka is the standing example: a rule of law for the whole country, produced by a petition brought by people with no personal stake in it.

The Indian framework. Legal education is regulated by the Bar Council of India under Section 7(1)(h) of the Advocates Act, 1961, which requires it to promote legal education and to lay down standards in consultation with the Universities, and to recognise the degrees that qualify a person for enrolment. The Law Commission of India has examined the subject repeatedly. The decisive institutional reform was the creation of the National Law School of India University at Bangalore in 1987, which introduced the five-year integrated course taken directly after school, the model on which the BLS LLB course is built and on which the National Law Universities have since been founded across the country.

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The problems worth naming. The quality of teaching and infrastructure varies enormously between institutions; there are far more law colleges than there are teachers competent to staff them; the emphasis in many places is still on memorising rather than on reasoning and drafting; practical training, drafting, client interviewing, negotiation and advocacy, is often reduced to a formality; and the gap between the elite national law universities and the ordinary affiliated college is wide and growing.

Conclusion. Legal education is not vocational training for one profession; it is the maintenance of the machinery by which a constitutional democracy governs itself. Its importance is measured not by the number of graduates it produces but by whether the people it produces can read a statute honestly, argue a case fairly, and write a sentence that means one thing.

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27.Write guidelines issued in Vishakha case.

Answer

Citation. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011, (1997) 6 SCC 241, decided by Chief Justice J. S. Verma, Justice Sujata V. Manohar and Justice B. N. Kirpal.

The background in three sentences. Bhanwari Devi, a saathin employed in the Government of Rajasthan's Women's Development Programme, tried to prevent a child marriage in a village family and was gang-raped in revenge in 1992; the trial court acquitted the accused in 1995. A writ petition under Article 32 was then brought by Vishaka, a women's rights group, with other organisations, as a class action, not to reopen the criminal case but to obtain protection for working women generally. The Court held that sexual harassment at the workplace violates Articles 14, 15, 19(1)(g) and 21, and that in the absence of legislation it would lay down binding guidelines, drawing on the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), which India ratified in 1993, read into the fundamental rights through Articles 51(c) and 253.

The guidelines:

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  1. Duty of the employer. It is the duty of every employer, in the public and the private sector, to prevent or deter the commission of acts of sexual harassment and to provide procedures for the resolution, settlement or prosecution of complaints.
  2. Definition. Sexual harassment means unwelcome sexually determined behaviour, whether direct or by implication, comprising physical contact and advances; a demand or request for sexual favours; sexually coloured remarks; showing pornography; and any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.
  3. Preventive steps. Express prohibition of sexual harassment must be notified, published and circulated in appropriate ways; the conduct rules of government servants must include prohibition and provide penalties; standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, must be similarly amended in private employment; and working conditions must not be hostile to women.
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  1. Criminal proceedings. Where the conduct amounts to a specific offence under the penal law, the employer must initiate action by making a complaint to the appropriate authority, and must ensure that victims and witnesses are not victimised or discriminated against, with the option of the transfer of the victim or of the offender.
  2. Disciplinary action. Where the conduct amounts to misconduct under the service rules, appropriate disciplinary action must be taken.
  3. Complaint mechanism. An appropriate complaint mechanism must be created in the employer's organisation, providing for the time-bound treatment of complaints.
  4. Complaints Committee. The mechanism must include a Complaints Committee headed by a woman, with not less than half its members women, and involving a third party, such as a non-governmental organisation familiar with the issue, so as to prevent undue pressure from senior levels; it must submit an annual report to the Government.
  5. Workers' initiative. Employees must be allowed to raise the issue at workers' meetings and in other appropriate forums, and it must be affirmatively discussed in employer-employee meetings.
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  1. Awareness. Awareness of the rights of female employees must be created by prominently notifying the guidelines.
  2. Third parties. Where an act of sexual harassment is committed by a person other than an employee, the employer must take necessary and reasonable steps to assist the affected person.
  3. Government action. The Central and State Governments should consider adopting suitable measures, including legislation, to ensure that private employers observe the guidelines.

The Court declared these binding under Article 141 and directed that they be observed "until suitable legislation is enacted to occupy the field".

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28.Explain the following citation: Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib, AIR 1981 SC 487

Answer

The citation, element by element:

ElementWhat it means
Ajay HasiaThe first-named party, the appellant or petitioner, who brought this proceeding.
vs.Versus, "against". Conventionally written v.
Khalid MujibThe second-named party, the respondent. The case is fully reported as Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi.
AIRAll India Reporter, the report series in which the judgment is printed, published from Nagpur since 1914.
1981The year of the volume in which the case appears.
SCSupreme Court, the court that decided it.
487The page of that volume at which the report begins.
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Read as a whole: the case of Ajay Hasia against Khalid Mujib, decided by the Supreme Court of India and reported at page 487 of the 1981 volume of the All India Reporter. Being a Supreme Court decision, it binds every court in India under Article 141 of the Constitution.

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29.Read the following Act/Statute and identify following: THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS ACT, 1993.

  • 1. Short title, extent and Commencement
  • (1) This Act may be called the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India.
  • (3) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September 1993. Identify the following: a) Extent b) Commencement

Answer

(Act No.10 of 1994) [8th January 1994] An Act to provide for the Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of human rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Be it enacted by Parliament in the Forty-fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows;

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Part asked forThe words in the extract
(a) Extent"It extends to the whole of India", Section 1(2). The extent clause states the territory over which the Act operates.
(b) Commencement"It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September 1993", Section 1(3). The commencement clause states when the Act comes into force, which here is 28 September 1993.
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30.Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: It is difficult to compare countries because various factors such as size, culture, history, geography, natural endowments, geopolitics and internal polity come into play.

  • a) Why comparison between two countries becomes difficult?
  • b) What is the goal of China to be accomplished by the middle of 21st century?

Answer

There are some goals which can be achieved by smaller countries; but sometimes smaller countries find it difficult to embark upon certain big technological plans even if they have the funds, because the size of the domestic market is too small. If we consider the bigger countries, the closest comparison to India is China, though there are many crucial differences.

The Chinese vision is to prepare the country for entry into the ranks of mid-level developed nations by the middle of the twenty-first century. Acceleration of the nation's economic growth and social development by relying on advances in science and technology is pivotal in this.

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(a) Why does comparison between two countries become difficult?

Comparison is difficult because many factors come into play which differ from one country to another. The passage lists them: size, culture, history, geography, natural endowments, geopolitics and internal polity.

The passage adds a specific illustration of the difficulty. Some goals can be achieved by smaller countries, but smaller countries sometimes find it difficult to embark upon certain big technological plans even when they have the funds, because the size of their domestic market is too small. So a comparison that looks only at money, and ignores the scale of the market, will mislead. It is for this reason that the author says that among the bigger countries the closest comparison to India is China, "though there are many crucial differences".

(b) What is the goal of China to be accomplished by the middle of the 21st century?

The Chinese vision is to prepare the country for entry into the ranks of the mid-level developed nations by the middle of the twenty-first century.

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The passage names the means by which this is to be done: the acceleration of the nation's economic growth and social development by relying on advances in science and technology, which it calls pivotal to the plan.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2021-22 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 30 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

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