munotes®

BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Legal Language 2017-18 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Legal Language

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2017-18 Examination

munotes.in

Mumbai

munotes.in

First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2017-18 examination.

munotes.in ii
munotes.in iii

MarksPage

munotes.in iv

The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2017-18 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  25 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

munotes.in v

SECTION I

Do as directed

all 10 compulsory · 20 Marks

munotes.in 1

1.Who taught you grammar? (Change the voice)[2]

Answer

By whom were you taught grammar?

munotes.in 2

2.Circumstances shall oblige me to go. (Convert into active voice)[2]

Answer

The sentence as printed is already in the active voice, so the transformation intended is into the passive:

I shall be obliged by circumstances to go.

(Equally acceptable: I shall be obliged to go by circumstances.)

munotes.in 3

3.I always love my country. (Change into Negative Sentence)[2]

Answer

I never hate my country.

munotes.in 4

4.It is better to die than to be in this state. (Change the degree of comparison)[2]

Answer

The sentence is in the comparative degree. In the positive degree:

To be in this state is not so good as to die.

munotes.in 5

5.He is rich, yet he is not contended. (Change into a Simple Sentence)[2]

Answer

In spite of his riches, he is not contented.

(Equally acceptable: Despite being rich, he is not contented.)

munotes.in 6

6.Is that the way a gentleman should behave? (Convert into assertive sentence)[2]

Answer

That is not the way a gentleman should behave.

munotes.in 7

7.modern ideas of government date back to 1600s when for the first time people began to question a kings right to rule once thought to be god given (Punctuate the sentence)[2]

Answer

Modern ideas of government date back to 1600s, when, for the first time, people began to question a king's right to rule, once thought to be God-given.

munotes.in 8

8.State any two features of the magazine "One India One People".[2]

Answer

One India One People is an English-language monthly magazine published from Mumbai by the One India One People Foundation, started in 1997 by the industrialist Sadanand A. Shetty. Any two of the following are features of it:

  1. It is a national-integration magazine. Its declared purpose is to promote unity in diversity, to make readers conscious of themselves as Indians before anything else, and to hold up the rights and, in particular, the duties of the citizen under the Constitution.
  2. Every issue is built around a single theme. The cover story of a given month takes up one national question, education, water, the girl child, the judiciary, defence, and the articles inside are commissioned around that theme rather than gathered at random.
munotes.in 9
  1. It closes with a "Great Indians" feature, short profiles of Indians who deserve to be better known, characteristically including a gallantry-award winner from the armed forces alongside figures from public life and social work.
  2. Its contributors are specialists rather than staff reporters, so the writing is closer to informed comment than to news reporting, which is why the paper sets it for law students.
munotes.in 10

9.Give the full forms of the following. (1) D.M.C. (2) S.C.C.[2]

Answer

  1. D.M.C. = Divorce and Matrimonial Cases, the Indian law report series devoted to decisions on divorce, maintenance, custody, restitution of conjugal rights and other matrimonial matters.
  2. S.C.C. = Supreme Court Cases, the law report of the decisions of the Supreme Court of India, published by the Eastern Book Company, Lucknow, since 1969.
munotes.in 11

10.Explain the Citation: Pravinlal Mehta v/s. Umakant Shah AIR 2003 S.C. 1283[2]

Answer

The citation breaks up into six parts:

ElementWhat it means
Pravinlal MehtaThe first-named party, that is the appellant or petitioner, the party who brought the proceeding in this court.
v/s.Versus, Latin for "against". Conventionally written v. in Indian and English reports.
Umakant ShahThe second-named party, the respondent, against whom the proceeding is brought.
AIRAll India Reporter, the law report series in which the judgment is printed.
2003The year of the volume of that report in which the case appears.
S.C.Supreme Court, the court that decided the case.
1283The page number of that volume at which the report of the case begins.
munotes.in 12

Read as a whole: the case of Pravinlal Mehta against Umakant Shah, decided by the Supreme Court and reported at page 1283 of the 2003 volume of the All India Reporter.

munotes.in 13

SECTION II

Write short notes on any four of the following 20 Marks

munotes.in 14

11.Actus Non Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit Rea.[5]

Answer

The maxim means: "An act does not make a person guilty unless the mind is also guilty." It is the foundation of criminal liability in the common law and states that every crime is made up of two elements, both of which the prosecution must prove:

  1. Actus reus, the guilty act: the physical element, that is, a voluntary act or an illegal omission, together with the circumstances and the consequences the definition of the offence requires.
  2. Mens rea, the guilty mind: the mental element, that is, intention, knowledge, recklessness or negligence, in the degree the definition of the offence requires.

Neither alone is punishable. An evil intention that produces no act is not a crime, because the law does not punish thought; and an act done without a guilty mind, by an infant, a lunatic, or a person acting under a mistake of fact in good faith, is not a crime either.

munotes.in 15

Indian position. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, now replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, does not state the maxim as a general principle. Instead it builds the required mental state into the definition of each offence, by words such as intentionally, knowingly, voluntarily, dishonestly, fraudulently, rashly and negligently, and it collects the standing excuses in the General Exceptions chapter, which covers mistake of fact, accident, infancy, unsoundness of mind, intoxication and consent.

Exceptions. The maxim does not apply to strict liability offences, where the statute imposes liability irrespective of intention, typically in regulatory and public-welfare legislation, food adulteration, environmental and licensing law. In State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George the Supreme Court held that mens rea may be excluded by the express words of a statute or by necessary implication from its subject matter, and that the presumption in favour of mens rea is only a presumption.

munotes.in 16

12.Salus Populiest Suprema Lex.[5]

Answer

The maxim, from Cicero's De Legibus, means "the welfare (or safety) of the people is the supreme law." It expresses the principle that the interest of the community prevails over the interest of the individual, and that where the two conflict the law will prefer the public good.

It is habitually paired with a second maxim, necessitas publica major est quam privata, "public necessity is greater than private necessity", and the two together are the classical foundation of the state's power to interfere with private rights for a public purpose.

Where it operates:

  1. Eminent domain. The state may compulsorily acquire private property for a public purpose on payment of compensation. The Indian expression of this is the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, which replaced the Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
  2. The police power of the state: public health, sanitation, town planning, drug control, licensing, and the regulation of trades that are dangerous or offensive.
munotes.in 17
  1. Necessity as a defence in tort. Damage done to private property to avert a greater public harm, the classic instance being the pulling down of a house to stop the spread of a fire, is not actionable.
  2. Public nuisance, where an individual's use of his own land is restrained because it injures the public at large.
  3. Emergency powers and preventive detention, where personal liberty yields to the security of the state.
  4. The reasonable restrictions permitted on the fundamental freedoms in Article 19(2) to (6) of the Constitution, and the Directive Principles, which direct the state to secure a social order for the welfare of the people.
munotes.in 18

13.Rex Non Potest Peccare[5]

Answer

The maxim means "the King can do no wrong." It is the foundation of the doctrine of sovereign immunity: that the Crown, and therefore the state, could not be sued in its own courts for a wrong, and could not be held liable for the torts of its servants.

Two ideas are contained in it, and the note should separate them. First, the King is personally immune from suit and prosecution. Second, and more sweepingly, the King is incapable in law of authorising a wrong, so that a servant who commits a tort cannot plead the King's command as a defence, and the Crown itself is not vicariously liable for it.

In England the doctrine was abolished for most purposes by the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947, which made the Crown liable in tort broadly as a private person of full age and capacity.

In India:

  • Article 300(1) of the Constitution says the Union and the States may sue and be sued, and continues the position that obtained before the Constitution, that is, the liability of the East India Company and later of the Secretary of State for India.
munotes.in 19
  • Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Co. v. Secretary of State for India (1861) introduced the distinction that governed Indian law for a century: the state is liable for acts done in the exercise of non-sovereign functions, that is functions a private person could also perform, and not liable for sovereign functions.
  • State of Rajasthan v. Vidhyawati (1962): a government jeep being driven back from repairs killed a pedestrian; the State was held liable, the Supreme Court observing that in a welfare state with a large commercial apparatus there is no justification for the old immunity.
  • Kasturi Lal Ralia Ram Jain v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1965): gold seized by the police and misappropriated by a head constable; the State was held not liable, because the power of seizure was a sovereign power. This decision has been criticised ever since.
munotes.in 20
  • N. Nagendra Rao & Co. v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1994) confined Kasturi Lal narrowly, holding that in a modern welfare state very few functions are so exclusively sovereign as to attract immunity, and that no civilised system can permit the state to play with the citizen and then claim it is not answerable.
  • In the constitutional jurisdiction the immunity is simply gone. In Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993) the Supreme Court held that compensation for violation of a fundamental right is a public law remedy under Articles 32 and 226, and that sovereign immunity is no defence to it.
munotes.in 21

14.Explain the meaning of (i) Acquittal (ii) Conviction[5]

Answer

(i) Acquittal. An acquittal is the judicial finding, at the conclusion of a trial, that the accused is not guilty of the offence charged, and the consequent order setting him at liberty. It is recorded where the prosecution has failed to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt, or where a general exception or a valid defence applies. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the relevant provisions were Sections 232 and 235(1) in a sessions trial and Section 248(1) in a warrant case; the Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, with effect from 1 July 2024, which carries the same scheme forward.

Consequences of an acquittal:

  • The accused is discharged from the charge and released, and his bail bonds are cancelled.
  • The presumption of innocence is confirmed; an acquitted person is innocent in the eye of the law for all purposes.
munotes.in 22
  • The bar against double jeopardy attaches: Article 20(2) of the Constitution and Section 300 of the Code protect a person once acquitted from being tried again for the same offence on the same facts.
  • The State may appeal against the acquittal, but only with leave in the cases the Code specifies, and an appellate court will not disturb an acquittal merely because another view is possible.

(ii) Conviction. A conviction is the judicial finding that the accused is guilty of the offence charged, entered when the prosecution has proved every ingredient of the offence beyond reasonable doubt. It was provided for by Sections 235(2) and 248(2) of the Code, now carried into the Sanhita.

Consequences of a conviction:

  • The court must then hear the accused on the question of sentence and pass sentence, which may be imprisonment, fine, forfeiture, or in the gravest cases death.
  • Conviction and sentence are two distinct stages. A person may be convicted and yet released on probation under the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, or after admonition, without any sentence of imprisonment.
munotes.in 23
  • A conviction carries collateral disqualifications: from public employment, from contesting elections under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and from holding certain licences.
  • The convicted person has a right of appeal, and in a fit case the sentence may be suspended pending appeal.
munotes.in 24

15.State and explain any two kinds of rights.[5]

Answer

A legal right is an interest recognised and protected by law, the violation of which is a legal wrong. Jurists classify rights in several ways; two of the most important are these.

(1) Right in rem and right in personam.

  • A right in rem is a right available against the whole world. It corresponds to a duty imposed on persons generally. The owner of a house has a right in rem: everybody is under a duty not to trespass on it, not to damage it and not to interfere with his possession. Rights of ownership, of personal liberty, of reputation and of bodily security are all rights in rem.
  • A right in personam is a right available against a determinate individual or individuals. It corresponds to a duty imposed on a specific person. A creditor's right to be paid by his debtor, a buyer's right to delivery from his seller, and a tenant's rights against his landlord under the lease are rights in personam.
munotes.in 25

The practical importance of the distinction is that a right in rem survives a change of hands and a right in personam does not. It is also the line between property and obligation, and, as Winfield's definition shows, the line between tort, which enforces duties owed to persons generally, and contract, which enforces duties owed to a particular person.

(2) Perfect and imperfect rights.

  • A perfect right is one which is recognised by law and enforceable by legal process. Most rights are of this kind: if the right is infringed, the holder may bring an action and obtain a remedy.
  • An imperfect right is one which is recognised by law but not enforceable. The right exists, and the law will take notice of it for some purposes, but the courts will not compel performance. The standing examples are a time-barred debt, which is a real debt but one the Limitation Act bars the creditor from suing on, and a claim against a foreign sovereign or an ambassador protected by diplomatic immunity.
munotes.in 26

The importance of an imperfect right is that it is not a nullity. A time-barred debt can still be validly paid, and payment cannot be recovered back as a mistake; it can support a fresh promise under Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which makes a written and signed promise to pay a time-barred debt enforceable without fresh consideration; and a creditor holding security may still realise it.

munotes.in 27

16.Describe the search of a case law in whether minor's contract is void-ab-initio.[5]

Answer

The question is about legal research method: how you would go about finding the law on this point, and what you would find.

Step 1. State the problem as a legal issue and pick out the search terms. The issue is: is an agreement entered into by a person who has not attained majority void ab initio, or merely voidable at his option? The key words for searching are minor, minority, majority, competency to contract, void ab initio, voidable, agreement.

Step 2. Go to the statute first. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, requires that parties be competent to contract; Section 11 says that a person is competent if he is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, of sound mind, and not disqualified. The Indian Majority Act, 1875, fixes majority at eighteen years. Note what the statute does not say: it does not state in terms whether a minor's agreement is void or voidable, which is exactly why case law had to settle it.

munotes.in 28

Step 3. Find the leading case. Search the subject index or digest under "Contract, minor's agreement". The decision is Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), a decision of the Privy Council on appeal from Calcutta, reported at (1903) 30 IA 114 and ILR 30 Cal 539. It holds that a minor's agreement is absolutely void, void ab initio, and not merely voidable.

Step 4. Read the facts and the ratio, not the headnote alone. Dharmodas Ghose, a minor, mortgaged his house to a moneylender whose agent knew of his minority. He sued to have the mortgage set aside. The Privy Council held the mortgage void; refused to order him to repay the money under Section 64 or 65 of the Contract Act, since those sections presuppose a contract; and held that estoppel did not apply against him where the lender knew the truth.

Step 5. Bring the search forward in time. Use a digest, a citator or an online database, SCC Online, Manupatra, or the free Indian Kanoon, to see whether the case has been followed, distinguished or overruled, and to pick up the qualifications that later decisions have added:

  • a minor may be a beneficiary and may enforce a contract made for his benefit;
munotes.in 29
  • a minor's estate is liable for necessaries supplied to him, under Section 68 of the Contract Act, which is a quasi-contractual and not a contractual liability;
  • a minor cannot ratify on attaining majority, because there was never a contract to ratify;
  • a minor may act as an agent, and may be admitted to the benefits of a partnership under Section 30 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932;
  • there is no estoppel against a minor who misrepresents his age, though a court may apply the equitable doctrine of restitution and order him to restore the property if it is traceable.

Step 6. Record the citation properly and note the court, because that determines its authority. A Privy Council decision of 1903 continues to bind Indian courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court.

munotes.in 30

SECTION III

Answer any two of the following, with reference to the Legislative Extract given below

each question carries 6 marks · 12 Marks

munotes.in 31

17.THE MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY ACT, 1971. (ACT NO. 34 of 1971) [10th August, 1971] An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.[6]

  • 1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement.-
  • (1) This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint. Identify the following: (i) Short Title (ii) Enacting Formula (iii) Long Title (iv) Date of Assent

Answer

BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-

munotes.in 32
Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Short Title"This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", that is Section 1(1). The short title is the convenient name by which the Act is cited.
(ii) Enacting Formula"BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-" The enacting formula is the sentence which declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text that follows into law.
(iii) Long Title"An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." The long title states the general purpose and scope of the Act.
(iv) Date of Assent10th August, 1971, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act. This is the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution.
munotes.in 33

18.THE MATERNITY BENEFIT ACT, 1961. (ACT NO. 53 of 1961) [12th December, 1961] An Act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishments for certain periods before and after child-birth and to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits.[6]

  • 1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement.
  • (1) This Act may be called the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India.
  • (3) It shall come into force on such date as may be notified in this behalf in the Official Gazette:-
  • (a) in relation to mines and to any other establishment wherein such persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrians, acrobatics and other performance, by the Central Government.
  • (b) in relation to other establishment in a State, by the State Government. Identify the following: (i) Official Citation (ii) Marginal Notes (iii) Date of Assent (iv) Extent

Answer

BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-

munotes.in 34
Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Official Citation"(ACT NO. 53 of 1961)". The official citation is the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment, and it is how the Act is identified with certainty even if two Acts share a similar name.
(ii) Marginal Notes"Short Title, Extent and Commencement." A marginal note is the short heading printed against a section, summarising its contents.
(iii) Date of Assent12th December, 1961, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act.
(iv) Extent"It extends to the whole of India", that is Section 1(2). The extent clause states the territory over which the Act operates.
munotes.in 35

19.THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS ACT, 1993. (ACT NO.[6]

  • 1. Short Title, Extent and Commencement.
  • (1) This Act may be called The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India. Provided that it shall apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir only in so far as it pertains to the matters relatable to any of the entries enumerated in List I or List II in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution as applicable to that State.
  • (3) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993. Identify the following: (i) Preamble (ii) Enacting Formula (iii) Short Title (iv) Date of Commencement

Answer

10 of 1994) [08th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of Human Rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Forty-Fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-

munotes.in 36
Part asked forThe words in the extract
(i) Preamble"An Act to provide for the Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of Human Rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." This opening statement of the object of the Act is what the paper is asking you to point to.
(ii) Enacting Formula"BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Forty-Fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-"
(iii) Short Title"This Act may be called The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993", Section 1(1).
(iv) Date of Commencement28th September, 1993. Section 1(3) says the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993".
munotes.in 37

SECTION IV

Answer all the following 48 Marks

munotes.in 38

20.Write an Essay on: Demonetization.[12]

Answer

Demonetization is the act of a government stripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender, so that it can no longer be used to discharge a debt. It is normally done to withdraw a denomination from circulation, to replace a currency, or to attack the holding of unaccounted wealth in cash.

The Indian demonetization of 2016. On the evening of 8 November 2016 the Prime Minister announced that currency notes of ₹500 and ₹1000 would cease to be legal tender from midnight. The notes affected amounted to about 86 per cent of the value of the currency in circulation. Holders were given a window, until 30 December 2016, to deposit the old notes in bank accounts or exchange limited amounts, and new ₹2000 and redesigned ₹500 notes were issued. The legal power was Section 26(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, under which the Central Government, on the recommendation of the Central Board of the Bank, may declare by notification that any series of bank notes shall cease to be legal tender.

munotes.in 39

The stated objectives were four: to render worthless the stock of unaccounted "black" money held in cash; to destroy counterfeit currency, particularly high-value fakes said to be used to finance terrorism; to curb the cash economy and force transactions into the banking system; and to accelerate the move to a cashless or less-cash economy.

Two earlier instances are worth naming to show it was not unprecedented: notes of ₹1000, ₹5000 and ₹10,000 were demonetized in 1946, and again in 1978 under the High Denomination Bank Notes (Demonetisation) Act.

Arguments in favour. It was a decisive strike against hoarded cash; deposits into the banking system rose sharply and a large number of accounts came under the scrutiny of the tax authorities; the number of income-tax returns filed increased; digital payment systems, and UPI in particular, grew very rapidly from that point; counterfeit notes of the withdrawn series were made worthless at a stroke; and cash-financed activity in some sectors was disrupted.

munotes.in 40

Arguments against. The Reserve Bank's Annual Report for 2017-18 disclosed that about 99.3 per cent of the demonetized notes had been returned to the banking system, which suggested that very little unaccounted wealth was in fact held in the withdrawn notes, most of it being in property, gold and foreign accounts. The cost of printing new notes and of recalibrating the country's ATMs was substantial. The burden of the queues fell hardest on daily-wage earners, farmers, small traders and the informal sector, which is where India's employment is concentrated, and which runs on cash. The frequent changes of rule during the exchange window were criticised as showing that the measure had not been fully worked out.

munotes.in 41

The constitutional challenge. In Vivek Narayan Sharma v. Union of India (2023) a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, by a majority of four to one, upheld the notification. The majority held that Section 26(2) permits the demonetization of "any series" of notes including all series of a denomination, that the decision was taken after consultation between the Bank and the Government, and that the Court would not sit in appeal over economic policy. Justice B. V. Nagarathna dissented, holding that a measure of this width had to be effected by primary legislation rather than by executive notification, and that the initiative had in fact come from the Central Government rather than from the Central Board of the Bank as Section 26(2) contemplates. The dissent expressly declined to comment on whether the object was achieved.

Conclusion. The lawful power to demonetize is not in doubt, and the Supreme Court has now settled the question of vires. The dispute that remains is one of economics and administration, not of legality: whether an instrument this blunt achieved enough to justify the disruption it caused. The honest verdict is a divided one, that the measure succeeded in accelerating digital payment and in widening the tax base, and failed in its principal declared object of extinguishing unaccounted cash.

munotes.in 42

21.Write an Essay on: Right to clean and healthy environment.[12]

Answer

The proposition. The right to a clean and healthy environment is not written in the Constitution as a fundamental right. It has been read into Article 21 by the Supreme Court, on the reasoning that the right to life means more than animal existence, and that a life lived in polluted air and water is not a life with dignity.

The constitutional material.

  • Article 21: no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This is the source of the right.
  • Article 48A, a Directive Principle inserted by the Forty-second Amendment, 1976: the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.
munotes.in 43
  • Article 51A(g), a Fundamental Duty inserted by the same amendment: it shall be the duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment and to have compassion for living creatures.
  • Articles 32 and 226, which supply the remedy, and which, through public interest litigation, allow any public-spirited person to move the court on behalf of those who cannot.

The leading decisions.

  • Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1985), the Dehradun limestone quarrying case, the first major environmental PIL, in which the Court ordered the closure of quarries although this cost employment, holding the hazard to the ecology of the region to be the graver consideration.
  • Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991), where the Court stated in terms that the right to life includes the right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air.
  • M. C. Mehta v. Union of India, a series of cases rather than one, which produced the closure or relocation of hazardous industry in Delhi, the protection of the Taj Mahal from the Mathura refinery, the cleaning of the Ganga, and the introduction of CNG in Delhi's public transport.
munotes.in 44
  • Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996), in which the Court held that sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle are part of the law of India, the precautionary principle placing the onus on the developer to show that his activity is benign.
  • Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India (1996), the Bichhri case, applying absolute liability and the polluter pays principle to make the polluter bear the cost of restoring the damaged environment.
  • M. C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997), which brought the public trust doctrine into Indian law: rivers, forests, air and the sea are held by the State as trustee for the public, and cannot be converted into private ownership.
  • M. K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India (2024), in which the Supreme Court recognised a right against the adverse effects of climate change, drawn from Articles 21 and 14.
munotes.in 45

The statutory framework. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, passed in the aftermath of Bhopal as an umbrella statute; the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; the Biological Diversity Act, 2002; and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, which created a specialised tribunal with judicial and expert members to decide environmental disputes.

The tension, which the essay must face. The right competes with development, employment and the right to trade under Article 19(1)(g). Closing a tannery cleans a river and puts its workers out of work. Indian courts have resolved this through sustainable development, the principle that development and environmental protection are not opposites but must be balanced so that the needs of the present are met without compromising the ability of future generations to meet theirs. Sustainable development is the doctrinal answer to the objection that environmental protection is a luxury for a poor country.

munotes.in 46

Conclusion. The right is now firmly established in Indian law, and India's judicial contribution to environmental jurisprudence is acknowledged internationally. The weakness lies not in the law but in its enforcement: pollution control boards are under-resourced, orders are complied with slowly, and the air quality of Indian cities has continued to deteriorate through the whole period in which this jurisprudence has been developed. A right that is repeatedly declared and inconsistently enforced is the real subject of this essay.

munotes.in 47

22.Briefly outline the facts, issues and guidelines given by the Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak Case).[12]

Answer

Citation. M. C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, (1987) 1 SCC 395, decided by a Constitution Bench of five judges, the judgment delivered by Chief Justice P. N. Bhagwati.

Facts. Shriram Foods and Fertilizer Industries, a unit of Delhi Cloth Mills, ran a caustic chlorine and oleum plant in a densely populated part of Delhi, in the neighbourhood of Kirti Nagar, where some two lakh people lived within a radius of about three kilometres. On 4 December 1985, days after the first anniversary of the Bhopal disaster, oleum gas escaped from one of its units, affecting a large number of people; an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died, and several others were hospitalised. A second escape followed on 6 December 1985. M. C. Mehta had already filed a writ petition under Article 32 seeking closure and relocation of the plant; after the leak, applications were made for compensation for the victims.

Issues.

munotes.in 48
  1. Whether an enterprise carrying on a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is liable on the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher with its recognised exceptions, or on some stricter principle.
  2. Whether a private corporation performing an activity affecting the public falls within "other authorities" in Article 12, so that a writ under Article 32 lies against it.
  3. Whether the Supreme Court, in its writ jurisdiction under Article 32, has the power to award compensation for the infringement of a fundamental right, or whether the victims must be left to a civil suit.
  4. On what basis the quantum of such compensation should be measured.

The decision and the guidelines.

1. The rule of absolute liability. This is the heart of the case and must be stated in the Court's own terms. Where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of that activity, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those affected, and the liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate against the tortious principle of strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher.

munotes.in 49

The reasons given for departing from the English rule were three, and they are worth reproducing:

  • The rule in Rylands v. Fletcher was evolved in 1868, in a society very different from a modern industrial one, and India need not adhere to it merely because it was developed in England.
  • The enterprise alone has the resources to discover and guard against hazards, and it undertakes the activity for private profit; the duty it owes to the community is therefore absolute and non-delegable.
  • If the enterprise is permitted to carry on a hazardous activity for profit, the cost of any accident arising from it must be treated as part of the overheads of that activity.

2. The measure of damages. The Court laid down that the compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, so that it has a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount payable. This displaces the ordinary compensatory measure with a partly punitive one.

munotes.in 50

3. Article 32 and compensation. The Court held that its power under Article 32 is not merely injunctive but remedial, and that it may forge new remedies and fashion new strategies to enforce fundamental rights, including an award of compensation, at least where the infringement is gross and affects persons in a disadvantaged position.

4. Article 12. The Court noted the argument that Shriram, being licensed and regulated and engaged in an activity with the potential to affect the life and health of the people, might fall within Article 12, but expressly declined to decide the point, since the applications could be disposed of without it. Say this; candidates routinely and wrongly assert that the Court held a private company to be "State".

5. Directions on the plant itself. In its earlier order of 17 February 1986 the Court permitted the caustic chlorine plant to restart subject to stringent conditions on the recommendation of expert committees, appointed an expert committee to inspect, required an operator to be present at the site, a safety siren, a Rs 20 lakh bank guarantee against future escapes, and undertakings from the management with personal liability.

munotes.in 51

6. A specialised forum. The Court observed that cases of this kind involve issues of scientific and technical fact and suggested the setting up of environment courts with professional judges assisted by experts, a suggestion realised much later in the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

Significance. The rule of absolute liability is the single largest Indian contribution to the law of torts. It was applied in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India (1996) to make a polluter bear the cost of remediation, and it is reflected in the no-fault liability created by the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991. In the Bhopal settlement the Court did not in the end apply the measure of damages proposed here, which remains the principal criticism of the doctrine's practical effect.

munotes.in 52

23.Briefly outline the facts, issues and guidelines given by the Supreme Court in D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal.[12]

Answer

Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, (1997) 1 SCC 416, decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.

Facts. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, addressed a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986 drawing attention to news reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and asking that the letter be treated as a writ petition under the epistolary jurisdiction of the Court. It was so treated. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri concerning a death in police custody at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to all the State Governments and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits from the States showing that custodial deaths were continuing.

Issues.

  1. Whether custodial death, torture and lock-up violence infringe Articles 21 and 22(1) of the Constitution.
munotes.in 53
  1. What preventive safeguards should attend arrest and detention to make the constitutional guarantee effective.
  2. Whether monetary compensation may be awarded in public law under Articles 32 and 226 for an established infringement, and whether sovereign immunity is an answer to such a claim.

The Court's reasoning. The Court described custodial torture as "a naked violation of human dignity" and held that the precious right guaranteed by Article 21 cannot be denied to convicts, undertrials, detenus and other prisoners in custody, except according to procedure established by law. It emphasised the difficulty of proof: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so that safeguards must operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on later proof.

The eleven guidelines. The Court laid down the following requirements to be followed in all cases of arrest and detention, as preventive measures:

munotes.in 54
  1. Police personnel carrying out the arrest and handling the interrogation must bear accurate, visible and clear identification and name tags with their designations, and the particulars of all such personnel must be recorded in a register.
  2. The officer carrying out the arrest shall prepare a memo of arrest at the time of arrest, attested by at least one witness, who may be a family member of the arrestee or a respectable person of the locality, and countersigned by the arrestee, bearing the date and time of arrest.
  3. A person arrested or detained shall be entitled to have one friend, relative or other person known to him informed, as soon as practicable, that he has been arrested and where he is being detained.
  4. Where the next friend or relative lives outside the district, the time, place of arrest and venue of custody must be notified through the Legal Aid Organisation of the district and the police station of the area, telegraphically, within 8 to 12 hours of the arrest.
  5. The arrested person must be made aware of this right as soon as he is arrested or detained.
munotes.in 55
  1. An entry must be made in the diary at the place of detention recording the arrest, the name of the friend informed, and the particulars of the police officials in whose custody the arrestee is.
  2. The arrestee shall, if he so requests, be examined at the time of arrest and any injuries recorded; the "Inspection Memo" must be signed by both the arrestee and the arresting officer, and a copy given to the arrestee.
  3. The arrestee must be subjected to medical examination every 48 hours during custody, by a doctor on a panel of approved doctors appointed by the Director, Health Services of the State or Union Territory.
  4. Copies of all documents, including the memo of arrest, must be sent to the Illaqa Magistrate for his record.
  5. The arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation.
  6. A police control room must be provided at every district and State headquarters, to which the arresting officer must communicate the fact and place of arrest within 12 hours, and where it must be displayed on a conspicuous notice board.
munotes.in 56

The Court directed that these requirements be followed in all cases, that failure to comply would render the official liable for departmental action and for contempt of court, and that the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards.

Compensation. The Court held that monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy in public law for an established infringement of the right under Article 21, that this is distinct from a private-law claim in tort, that it is awarded on the principle of strict liability to which the defence of sovereign immunity does not apply, and that the State may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed and confirmed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993).

munotes.in 57

Aftermath. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008, which inserted, among others, Section 41B requiring identification and a memo of arrest, Section 41D giving the right to meet an advocate during interrogation, Section 50A requiring the nominated person to be informed, and Section 55A placing on the custodian a duty to take reasonable care of the health and safety of the accused. The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries these safeguards forward. The Court returned to the subject in 2015, directing the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, a direction taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020).

munotes.in 58

24.Define a Law Report. Write briefly on any two.[12]

Answer

Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision which is considered to be of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the points of law argued, the judgment of the court and the order made, prepared and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent in later cases.

A law report is not the same as the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, nor the same as a transcript, which is a verbatim note. A law report is selective and edited: only a small proportion of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus that the judgment itself does not contain.

Why law reports exist. The doctrine of precedent requires that like cases be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found. Law reporting is therefore the machinery that makes the doctrine of precedent workable; without reports, stare decisis would be an aspiration.

munotes.in 59

Contents of a properly reported case, in the order in which they appear:

  1. the name of the court and the names of the judges;
  2. the names of the parties and the date of the judgment;
  3. catchwords and the headnote, a summary of the facts and the propositions decided, written by the editor;
  4. the list of cases cited and referred to;
  5. the names of counsel appearing;
  6. a short statement of the facts and the history of the proceedings;
  7. the judgment or judgments verbatim, including any dissent;
  8. the order of the court and the direction as to costs.

Two law reports, described.

munotes.in 60

(1) All India Reporter (AIR). Founded at Nagpur in 1914 by V. V. Chitaley, AIR is the oldest continuously published general law report in India and remains the most widely cited. It reports the Supreme Court, the High Courts, and historically the Privy Council and the Federal Court, in separate court-wise volumes, together with a section for Central and State legislation. Its citation form places the year first without brackets, then the report, then the court, then the page: AIR 2003 SC 1283. AIR also publishes the AIR Manual, a subject-arranged consolidation of Indian statutes with case annotations, which is the standard first stop in a legal search. It is a private publication.

(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC). Published by the Eastern Book Company, Lucknow, since 1969, SCC reports the decisions of the Supreme Court of India exclusively and is generally regarded, with the official reports, as the most accurate and complete text of the Court's judgments; it is the report the Supreme Court and the High Courts most commonly cite today. Its citation form places the year in brackets, then the volume, then the report, then the page: (1997) 1 SCC 416, which is D. K. Basu. Its companion series include SCC (Cri) for criminal cases, SCC (L&S) for service law, and the online database SCC Online. It is likewise a private publication.

Two others worth naming in a line each:

munotes.in 61
  • Supreme Court Reports (SCR), the official report of the Supreme Court, published under the authority of the Court itself. Where a case is reported in SCR, that is the report which should be cited.
  • Indian Law Reports (ILR), published by the State Governments under the Indian Law Reports Act, 1875, which provides that no court shall be bound to hear cited, as a report of a High Court decision, any report other than the ILR where one exists.
munotes.in 62

25.Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: There is a place forty kilometers north-east of Portland, Victoria, which makes for an unusual visit. It is Lake Condah. Here are to be found remains of aboriginal settlements:[12]

  • a) Why is Lake Condah unusual and what picture does this site present?
  • b) What is one of the main attractions of Lake Condah?
  • c) How and why are rocks piled at strategic spots?
  • d) What does the author say about stones and huts?
  • e) Explain one of the theories of the stone walls.
  • f) Provide a suitable title for the passage.

Answer

the circular stone bases of several hundred huts, rock-lined water channels, and stone tools chipped from rock not normally found in the area. One of the attractions of Lake Condah long ago was its fish and the most startling evidence of aboriginal technology and engineering to be found there are the systems built to trap fish.

munotes.in 63

Water courses had been constructed by redirecting streams, building stone sides and even scraping out new channels. At strategic spots, they piled rocks across the water courses to create weirs and build funnels to channel eels and fish into conical baskets.

This is an eel-fishing technique which has hardly changed to the present day. Besides some of the larger traps, there are the outlines of rectangular, stone-lined ponds, probably to hold fish and keep them fresh.

On the bluffs overlooking the lake, stone circles are all that remain of ancient dwellings. Not all of the stones were quarried locally.

The huts vary in size, but all have gaps for doorways located on the lee side, away from the prevailing wind. One theory is that the stone walls were only waist to shoulder high, with the top roofed by branches and possibly packed with mud.

The site presents a picture of a semi-settled people quite different from the stereotype of nomadic hunter-gatherers of the desert.

munotes.in 64

(a) Why is Lake Condah unusual and what picture does this site present?

Lake Condah, forty kilometres north-east of Portland, Victoria, is unusual because it preserves the remains of aboriginal settlements: the circular stone bases of several hundred huts, rock-lined water channels, and stone tools chipped from rock not normally found in the area, together with elaborate systems built to trap fish. The picture the site presents is of a semi-settled people, quite different from the stereotype of the nomadic hunter-gatherers of the desert.

(b) What is one of the main attractions of Lake Condah?

One of the attractions of Lake Condah long ago was its fish, and the most startling evidence of aboriginal technology and engineering to be found there are the systems built to trap fish.

(c) How and why are rocks piled at strategic spots?

How: at strategic spots the people piled rocks across the water courses. Why: in order to create weirs and to build funnels which channelled eels and fish into conical baskets, an eel-fishing technique which, the passage says, has hardly changed to the present day.

(d) What does the author say about stones and huts?

munotes.in 65

The author says that not all of the stones were quarried locally, and that the huts vary in size, but all of them have gaps for doorways located on the lee side, away from the prevailing wind.

(e) Explain one of the theories of the stone walls.

One theory is that the stone walls were only waist to shoulder high, and that the top was roofed by branches, possibly packed with mud. On this view the stonework was only the lower part of the dwelling, the upper part being made of perishable material which has not survived, which would explain why only the circular stone bases now remain.

(f) Provide a suitable title for the passage.

"Lake Condah: The Stone Village of the Aborigines."

(Equally acceptable: "Lake Condah: Evidence of a Semi-Settled People" or "The Fish Traps of Lake Condah".)

munotes.in 66

Notes on These Answers

Are these the official Mumbai University answers?

No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.

Are the solutions free to read?

Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.

How should I use a solved paper?

Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.

Do the answers match the current syllabus?

The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.

Can I quote these answers on my own site, in class or in an AI tool?

Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license

munotes.in 67

Colophon

This volume prints the 2017-18 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

munotes.in 68
Report an error

Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.

Done!