Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Legal Language
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2017-18 examination.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2017-18 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2017-18 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Do as directed
all 10 compulsory · 20 Marks
Answer
By whom were you taught grammar?
Answer
The sentence as printed is already in the active voice, so the transformation intended is into the passive:
I shall be obliged by circumstances to go.
(Equally acceptable: I shall be obliged to go by circumstances.)
Answer
I never hate my country.
Answer
The sentence is in the comparative degree. In the positive degree:
To be in this state is not so good as to die.
Answer
In spite of his riches, he is not contented.
(Equally acceptable: Despite being rich, he is not contented.)
Answer
That is not the way a gentleman should behave.
Answer
Modern ideas of government date back to 1600s, when, for the first time, people began to question a king's right to rule, once thought to be God-given.
Answer
One India One People is an English-language monthly magazine published from Mumbai by the One India One People Foundation, started in 1997 by the industrialist Sadanand A. Shetty. Any two of the following are features of it:
Answer
Answer
The citation breaks up into six parts:
| Element | What it means |
|---|---|
| Pravinlal Mehta | The first-named party, that is the appellant or petitioner, the party who brought the proceeding in this court. |
| v/s. | Versus, Latin for "against". Conventionally written v. in Indian and English reports. |
| Umakant Shah | The second-named party, the respondent, against whom the proceeding is brought. |
| AIR | All India Reporter, the law report series in which the judgment is printed. |
| 2003 | The year of the volume of that report in which the case appears. |
| S.C. | Supreme Court, the court that decided the case. |
| 1283 | The page number of that volume at which the report of the case begins. |
Read as a whole: the case of Pravinlal Mehta against Umakant Shah, decided by the Supreme Court and reported at page 1283 of the 2003 volume of the All India Reporter.
Write short notes on any four of the following 20 Marks
Answer
The maxim means: "An act does not make a person guilty unless the mind is also guilty." It is the foundation of criminal liability in the common law and states that every crime is made up of two elements, both of which the prosecution must prove:
Neither alone is punishable. An evil intention that produces no act is not a crime, because the law does not punish thought; and an act done without a guilty mind, by an infant, a lunatic, or a person acting under a mistake of fact in good faith, is not a crime either.
Indian position. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, now replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, does not state the maxim as a general principle. Instead it builds the required mental state into the definition of each offence, by words such as intentionally, knowingly, voluntarily, dishonestly, fraudulently, rashly and negligently, and it collects the standing excuses in the General Exceptions chapter, which covers mistake of fact, accident, infancy, unsoundness of mind, intoxication and consent.
Exceptions. The maxim does not apply to strict liability offences, where the statute imposes liability irrespective of intention, typically in regulatory and public-welfare legislation, food adulteration, environmental and licensing law. In State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George the Supreme Court held that mens rea may be excluded by the express words of a statute or by necessary implication from its subject matter, and that the presumption in favour of mens rea is only a presumption.
Answer
The maxim, from Cicero's De Legibus, means "the welfare (or safety) of the people is the supreme law." It expresses the principle that the interest of the community prevails over the interest of the individual, and that where the two conflict the law will prefer the public good.
It is habitually paired with a second maxim, necessitas publica major est quam privata, "public necessity is greater than private necessity", and the two together are the classical foundation of the state's power to interfere with private rights for a public purpose.
Where it operates:
Answer
The maxim means "the King can do no wrong." It is the foundation of the doctrine of sovereign immunity: that the Crown, and therefore the state, could not be sued in its own courts for a wrong, and could not be held liable for the torts of its servants.
Two ideas are contained in it, and the note should separate them. First, the King is personally immune from suit and prosecution. Second, and more sweepingly, the King is incapable in law of authorising a wrong, so that a servant who commits a tort cannot plead the King's command as a defence, and the Crown itself is not vicariously liable for it.
In England the doctrine was abolished for most purposes by the Crown Proceedings Act, 1947, which made the Crown liable in tort broadly as a private person of full age and capacity.
In India:
Answer
(i) Acquittal. An acquittal is the judicial finding, at the conclusion of a trial, that the accused is not guilty of the offence charged, and the consequent order setting him at liberty. It is recorded where the prosecution has failed to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt, or where a general exception or a valid defence applies. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the relevant provisions were Sections 232 and 235(1) in a sessions trial and Section 248(1) in a warrant case; the Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, with effect from 1 July 2024, which carries the same scheme forward.
Consequences of an acquittal:
(ii) Conviction. A conviction is the judicial finding that the accused is guilty of the offence charged, entered when the prosecution has proved every ingredient of the offence beyond reasonable doubt. It was provided for by Sections 235(2) and 248(2) of the Code, now carried into the Sanhita.
Consequences of a conviction:
Answer
A legal right is an interest recognised and protected by law, the violation of which is a legal wrong. Jurists classify rights in several ways; two of the most important are these.
(1) Right in rem and right in personam.
The practical importance of the distinction is that a right in rem survives a change of hands and a right in personam does not. It is also the line between property and obligation, and, as Winfield's definition shows, the line between tort, which enforces duties owed to persons generally, and contract, which enforces duties owed to a particular person.
(2) Perfect and imperfect rights.
The importance of an imperfect right is that it is not a nullity. A time-barred debt can still be validly paid, and payment cannot be recovered back as a mistake; it can support a fresh promise under Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which makes a written and signed promise to pay a time-barred debt enforceable without fresh consideration; and a creditor holding security may still realise it.
Answer
The question is about legal research method: how you would go about finding the law on this point, and what you would find.
Step 1. State the problem as a legal issue and pick out the search terms. The issue is: is an agreement entered into by a person who has not attained majority void ab initio, or merely voidable at his option? The key words for searching are minor, minority, majority, competency to contract, void ab initio, voidable, agreement.
Step 2. Go to the statute first. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, requires that parties be competent to contract; Section 11 says that a person is competent if he is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, of sound mind, and not disqualified. The Indian Majority Act, 1875, fixes majority at eighteen years. Note what the statute does not say: it does not state in terms whether a minor's agreement is void or voidable, which is exactly why case law had to settle it.
Step 3. Find the leading case. Search the subject index or digest under "Contract, minor's agreement". The decision is Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903), a decision of the Privy Council on appeal from Calcutta, reported at (1903) 30 IA 114 and ILR 30 Cal 539. It holds that a minor's agreement is absolutely void, void ab initio, and not merely voidable.
Step 4. Read the facts and the ratio, not the headnote alone. Dharmodas Ghose, a minor, mortgaged his house to a moneylender whose agent knew of his minority. He sued to have the mortgage set aside. The Privy Council held the mortgage void; refused to order him to repay the money under Section 64 or 65 of the Contract Act, since those sections presuppose a contract; and held that estoppel did not apply against him where the lender knew the truth.
Step 5. Bring the search forward in time. Use a digest, a citator or an online database, SCC Online, Manupatra, or the free Indian Kanoon, to see whether the case has been followed, distinguished or overruled, and to pick up the qualifications that later decisions have added:
Step 6. Record the citation properly and note the court, because that determines its authority. A Privy Council decision of 1903 continues to bind Indian courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court.
Answer any two of the following, with reference to the Legislative Extract given below
each question carries 6 marks · 12 Marks
Answer
BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Short Title | "This Act may be called The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971", that is Section 1(1). The short title is the convenient name by which the Act is cited. |
| (ii) Enacting Formula | "BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Twenty-Second Year of the Republic of India as follows:-" The enacting formula is the sentence which declares the authority by which the law is made and turns the text that follows into law. |
| (iii) Long Title | "An Act to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." The long title states the general purpose and scope of the Act. |
| (iv) Date of Assent | 10th August, 1971, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act. This is the date on which the President gave assent under Article 111 of the Constitution. |
Answer
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Twelfth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Official Citation | "(ACT NO. 53 of 1961)". The official citation is the serial number given to the Act in the year of its enactment, and it is how the Act is identified with certainty even if two Acts share a similar name. |
| (ii) Marginal Notes | "Short Title, Extent and Commencement." A marginal note is the short heading printed against a section, summarising its contents. |
| (iii) Date of Assent | 12th December, 1961, printed in square brackets at the head of the Act. |
| (iv) Extent | "It extends to the whole of India", that is Section 1(2). The extent clause states the territory over which the Act operates. |
Answer
10 of 1994) [08th January, 1994] An Act to provide for the Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of Human Rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Forty-Fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-
| Part asked for | The words in the extract |
|---|---|
| (i) Preamble | "An Act to provide for the Constitution of a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission in States and Human Rights Courts for better protection of Human Rights and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto." This opening statement of the object of the Act is what the paper is asking you to point to. |
| (ii) Enacting Formula | "BE it enacted by the Parliament in the Forty-Fourth Year of the Republic of India as follows:-" |
| (iii) Short Title | "This Act may be called The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993", Section 1(1). |
| (iv) Date of Commencement | 28th September, 1993. Section 1(3) says the Act "shall be deemed to have come into force on the 28th day of September, 1993". |
Answer all the following 48 Marks
Answer
Demonetization is the act of a government stripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender, so that it can no longer be used to discharge a debt. It is normally done to withdraw a denomination from circulation, to replace a currency, or to attack the holding of unaccounted wealth in cash.
The Indian demonetization of 2016. On the evening of 8 November 2016 the Prime Minister announced that currency notes of ₹500 and ₹1000 would cease to be legal tender from midnight. The notes affected amounted to about 86 per cent of the value of the currency in circulation. Holders were given a window, until 30 December 2016, to deposit the old notes in bank accounts or exchange limited amounts, and new ₹2000 and redesigned ₹500 notes were issued. The legal power was Section 26(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, under which the Central Government, on the recommendation of the Central Board of the Bank, may declare by notification that any series of bank notes shall cease to be legal tender.
The stated objectives were four: to render worthless the stock of unaccounted "black" money held in cash; to destroy counterfeit currency, particularly high-value fakes said to be used to finance terrorism; to curb the cash economy and force transactions into the banking system; and to accelerate the move to a cashless or less-cash economy.
Two earlier instances are worth naming to show it was not unprecedented: notes of ₹1000, ₹5000 and ₹10,000 were demonetized in 1946, and again in 1978 under the High Denomination Bank Notes (Demonetisation) Act.
Arguments in favour. It was a decisive strike against hoarded cash; deposits into the banking system rose sharply and a large number of accounts came under the scrutiny of the tax authorities; the number of income-tax returns filed increased; digital payment systems, and UPI in particular, grew very rapidly from that point; counterfeit notes of the withdrawn series were made worthless at a stroke; and cash-financed activity in some sectors was disrupted.
Arguments against. The Reserve Bank's Annual Report for 2017-18 disclosed that about 99.3 per cent of the demonetized notes had been returned to the banking system, which suggested that very little unaccounted wealth was in fact held in the withdrawn notes, most of it being in property, gold and foreign accounts. The cost of printing new notes and of recalibrating the country's ATMs was substantial. The burden of the queues fell hardest on daily-wage earners, farmers, small traders and the informal sector, which is where India's employment is concentrated, and which runs on cash. The frequent changes of rule during the exchange window were criticised as showing that the measure had not been fully worked out.
The constitutional challenge. In Vivek Narayan Sharma v. Union of India (2023) a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, by a majority of four to one, upheld the notification. The majority held that Section 26(2) permits the demonetization of "any series" of notes including all series of a denomination, that the decision was taken after consultation between the Bank and the Government, and that the Court would not sit in appeal over economic policy. Justice B. V. Nagarathna dissented, holding that a measure of this width had to be effected by primary legislation rather than by executive notification, and that the initiative had in fact come from the Central Government rather than from the Central Board of the Bank as Section 26(2) contemplates. The dissent expressly declined to comment on whether the object was achieved.
Conclusion. The lawful power to demonetize is not in doubt, and the Supreme Court has now settled the question of vires. The dispute that remains is one of economics and administration, not of legality: whether an instrument this blunt achieved enough to justify the disruption it caused. The honest verdict is a divided one, that the measure succeeded in accelerating digital payment and in widening the tax base, and failed in its principal declared object of extinguishing unaccounted cash.
Answer
The proposition. The right to a clean and healthy environment is not written in the Constitution as a fundamental right. It has been read into Article 21 by the Supreme Court, on the reasoning that the right to life means more than animal existence, and that a life lived in polluted air and water is not a life with dignity.
The constitutional material.
The leading decisions.
The statutory framework. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, passed in the aftermath of Bhopal as an umbrella statute; the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; the Biological Diversity Act, 2002; and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, which created a specialised tribunal with judicial and expert members to decide environmental disputes.
The tension, which the essay must face. The right competes with development, employment and the right to trade under Article 19(1)(g). Closing a tannery cleans a river and puts its workers out of work. Indian courts have resolved this through sustainable development, the principle that development and environmental protection are not opposites but must be balanced so that the needs of the present are met without compromising the ability of future generations to meet theirs. Sustainable development is the doctrinal answer to the objection that environmental protection is a luxury for a poor country.
Conclusion. The right is now firmly established in Indian law, and India's judicial contribution to environmental jurisprudence is acknowledged internationally. The weakness lies not in the law but in its enforcement: pollution control boards are under-resourced, orders are complied with slowly, and the air quality of Indian cities has continued to deteriorate through the whole period in which this jurisprudence has been developed. A right that is repeatedly declared and inconsistently enforced is the real subject of this essay.
Answer
Citation. M. C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086, (1987) 1 SCC 395, decided by a Constitution Bench of five judges, the judgment delivered by Chief Justice P. N. Bhagwati.
Facts. Shriram Foods and Fertilizer Industries, a unit of Delhi Cloth Mills, ran a caustic chlorine and oleum plant in a densely populated part of Delhi, in the neighbourhood of Kirti Nagar, where some two lakh people lived within a radius of about three kilometres. On 4 December 1985, days after the first anniversary of the Bhopal disaster, oleum gas escaped from one of its units, affecting a large number of people; an advocate practising in the Tis Hazari courts died, and several others were hospitalised. A second escape followed on 6 December 1985. M. C. Mehta had already filed a writ petition under Article 32 seeking closure and relocation of the plant; after the leak, applications were made for compensation for the victims.
Issues.
The decision and the guidelines.
1. The rule of absolute liability. This is the heart of the case and must be stated in the Court's own terms. Where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of that activity, the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those affected, and the liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate against the tortious principle of strict liability under Rylands v. Fletcher.
The reasons given for departing from the English rule were three, and they are worth reproducing:
2. The measure of damages. The Court laid down that the compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise, so that it has a deterrent effect: the larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater the amount payable. This displaces the ordinary compensatory measure with a partly punitive one.
3. Article 32 and compensation. The Court held that its power under Article 32 is not merely injunctive but remedial, and that it may forge new remedies and fashion new strategies to enforce fundamental rights, including an award of compensation, at least where the infringement is gross and affects persons in a disadvantaged position.
4. Article 12. The Court noted the argument that Shriram, being licensed and regulated and engaged in an activity with the potential to affect the life and health of the people, might fall within Article 12, but expressly declined to decide the point, since the applications could be disposed of without it. Say this; candidates routinely and wrongly assert that the Court held a private company to be "State".
5. Directions on the plant itself. In its earlier order of 17 February 1986 the Court permitted the caustic chlorine plant to restart subject to stringent conditions on the recommendation of expert committees, appointed an expert committee to inspect, required an operator to be present at the site, a safety siren, a Rs 20 lakh bank guarantee against future escapes, and undertakings from the management with personal liability.
6. A specialised forum. The Court observed that cases of this kind involve issues of scientific and technical fact and suggested the setting up of environment courts with professional judges assisted by experts, a suggestion realised much later in the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Significance. The rule of absolute liability is the single largest Indian contribution to the law of torts. It was applied in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India (1996) to make a polluter bear the cost of remediation, and it is reflected in the no-fault liability created by the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991. In the Bhopal settlement the Court did not in the end apply the measure of damages proposed here, which remains the principal criticism of the doctrine's practical effect.
Answer
Citation. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610, (1997) 1 SCC 416, decided by Justice Kuldip Singh and Justice A. S. Anand.
Facts. D. K. Basu, Executive Chairman of Legal Aid Services, West Bengal, a non-political organisation, addressed a letter to the Chief Justice of India in 1986 drawing attention to news reports of deaths in police lock-ups and in custody, and asking that the letter be treated as a writ petition under the epistolary jurisdiction of the Court. It was so treated. A second letter, from Ashok K. Johri concerning a death in police custody at Aligarh, was heard with it. The Court issued notice to all the State Governments and to the Law Commission, and over the following decade received affidavits from the States showing that custodial deaths were continuing.
Issues.
The Court's reasoning. The Court described custodial torture as "a naked violation of human dignity" and held that the precious right guaranteed by Article 21 cannot be denied to convicts, undertrials, detenus and other prisoners in custody, except according to procedure established by law. It emphasised the difficulty of proof: the victim is in the exclusive custody of the police, there are no independent witnesses, and injuries are seldom recorded, so that safeguards must operate at the moment of arrest rather than depend on later proof.
The eleven guidelines. The Court laid down the following requirements to be followed in all cases of arrest and detention, as preventive measures:
The Court directed that these requirements be followed in all cases, that failure to comply would render the official liable for departmental action and for contempt of court, and that the requirements are in addition to and not in derogation of other constitutional and statutory safeguards.
Compensation. The Court held that monetary compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy in public law for an established infringement of the right under Article 21, that this is distinct from a private-law claim in tort, that it is awarded on the principle of strict liability to which the defence of sovereign immunity does not apply, and that the State may recover the amount from the officer responsible. This followed and confirmed Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa (1993).
Aftermath. The guidelines were substantially enacted into the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008, which inserted, among others, Section 41B requiring identification and a memo of arrest, Section 41D giving the right to meet an advocate during interrogation, Section 50A requiring the nominated person to be informed, and Section 55A placing on the custodian a duty to take reasonable care of the health and safety of the accused. The Code has since been replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries these safeguards forward. The Court returned to the subject in 2015, directing the installation of CCTV cameras in police stations, a direction taken further in Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh (2020).
Answer
Definition. A law report is a published record of a judicial decision which is considered to be of sufficient importance to be reported, setting out the material facts, the points of law argued, the judgment of the court and the order made, prepared and published so that the decision may be found, read and cited as a precedent in later cases.
A law report is not the same as the record of a case, which is the file of pleadings and evidence, nor the same as a transcript, which is a verbatim note. A law report is selective and edited: only a small proportion of decisions is reported, and the reporter adds apparatus that the judgment itself does not contain.
Why law reports exist. The doctrine of precedent requires that like cases be decided alike, and Article 141 of the Constitution makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India. A binding decision is useless unless it can be found. Law reporting is therefore the machinery that makes the doctrine of precedent workable; without reports, stare decisis would be an aspiration.
Contents of a properly reported case, in the order in which they appear:
Two law reports, described.
(1) All India Reporter (AIR). Founded at Nagpur in 1914 by V. V. Chitaley, AIR is the oldest continuously published general law report in India and remains the most widely cited. It reports the Supreme Court, the High Courts, and historically the Privy Council and the Federal Court, in separate court-wise volumes, together with a section for Central and State legislation. Its citation form places the year first without brackets, then the report, then the court, then the page: AIR 2003 SC 1283. AIR also publishes the AIR Manual, a subject-arranged consolidation of Indian statutes with case annotations, which is the standard first stop in a legal search. It is a private publication.
(2) Supreme Court Cases (SCC). Published by the Eastern Book Company, Lucknow, since 1969, SCC reports the decisions of the Supreme Court of India exclusively and is generally regarded, with the official reports, as the most accurate and complete text of the Court's judgments; it is the report the Supreme Court and the High Courts most commonly cite today. Its citation form places the year in brackets, then the volume, then the report, then the page: (1997) 1 SCC 416, which is D. K. Basu. Its companion series include SCC (Cri) for criminal cases, SCC (L&S) for service law, and the online database SCC Online. It is likewise a private publication.
Two others worth naming in a line each:
Answer
the circular stone bases of several hundred huts, rock-lined water channels, and stone tools chipped from rock not normally found in the area. One of the attractions of Lake Condah long ago was its fish and the most startling evidence of aboriginal technology and engineering to be found there are the systems built to trap fish.
Water courses had been constructed by redirecting streams, building stone sides and even scraping out new channels. At strategic spots, they piled rocks across the water courses to create weirs and build funnels to channel eels and fish into conical baskets.
This is an eel-fishing technique which has hardly changed to the present day. Besides some of the larger traps, there are the outlines of rectangular, stone-lined ponds, probably to hold fish and keep them fresh.
On the bluffs overlooking the lake, stone circles are all that remain of ancient dwellings. Not all of the stones were quarried locally.
The huts vary in size, but all have gaps for doorways located on the lee side, away from the prevailing wind. One theory is that the stone walls were only waist to shoulder high, with the top roofed by branches and possibly packed with mud.
The site presents a picture of a semi-settled people quite different from the stereotype of nomadic hunter-gatherers of the desert.
(a) Why is Lake Condah unusual and what picture does this site present?
Lake Condah, forty kilometres north-east of Portland, Victoria, is unusual because it preserves the remains of aboriginal settlements: the circular stone bases of several hundred huts, rock-lined water channels, and stone tools chipped from rock not normally found in the area, together with elaborate systems built to trap fish. The picture the site presents is of a semi-settled people, quite different from the stereotype of the nomadic hunter-gatherers of the desert.
(b) What is one of the main attractions of Lake Condah?
One of the attractions of Lake Condah long ago was its fish, and the most startling evidence of aboriginal technology and engineering to be found there are the systems built to trap fish.
(c) How and why are rocks piled at strategic spots?
How: at strategic spots the people piled rocks across the water courses. Why: in order to create weirs and to build funnels which channelled eels and fish into conical baskets, an eel-fishing technique which, the passage says, has hardly changed to the present day.
(d) What does the author say about stones and huts?
The author says that not all of the stones were quarried locally, and that the huts vary in size, but all of them have gaps for doorways located on the lee side, away from the prevailing wind.
(e) Explain one of the theories of the stone walls.
One theory is that the stone walls were only waist to shoulder high, and that the top was roofed by branches, possibly packed with mud. On this view the stonework was only the lower part of the dwelling, the upper part being made of perishable material which has not survived, which would explain why only the circular stone bases now remain.
(f) Provide a suitable title for the passage.
"Lake Condah: The Stone Village of the Aborigines."
(Equally acceptable: "Lake Condah: Evidence of a Semi-Settled People" or "The Fish Traps of Lake Condah".)
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This volume prints the 2017-18 Legal Language paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
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