Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Labour Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Labour Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination.
This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer any Six of the following in not more than two sentences 12 Marks
Answer
Section 2(a). The expression is defined by reference to who carries on the industry.
The Central Government is the appropriate Government in relation to a dispute concerning any industry carried on by or under the authority of the Central Government or by a railway company, or concerning a controlled industry specified by the Central Government, and in relation to banking and insurance companies, mines, oil fields, cantonment boards, major ports and the statutory corporations named in the section.
In relation to any other industrial dispute, the appropriate Government is the State Government.
Answer
Section 2(cc), inserted by the Amendment Act of 1982: "closure" means the permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof.
Section 25FFF governs its consequences: where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, every workman in continuous service for not less than one year is entitled to notice and compensation as if he had been retrenched, that is one month's notice or wages in lieu and fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service. Where the closure is on account of unavoidable circumstances beyond the control of the employer, the compensation shall not exceed the average pay for three months.
Answer
Section 2(g): "employer" means:
Answer
Section 2(n): "public utility service" means:
Answer
Section 2(c): "Certifying Officer" means a Labour Commissioner or a Regional Labour Commissioner, and includes any other officer appointed by the appropriate Government, by notification, to perform the functions of a Certifying Officer under the Act.
His functions: to receive the draft standing orders under Section 3; to certify them under Section 5 after notice, fifteen days for objections, and a hearing; to adjudicate upon the fairness or reasonableness of the provisions under Section 4; to deal with applications for modification under Section 10; and to maintain the register under Section 8. Under Section 11 he has the powers of a civil court.
Answer
Section 2(e): "industrial establishment" means:
Application. Section 1(3): the Act applies to every industrial establishment wherein one hundred or more workmen are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months, and the appropriate Government may, on not less than two months' notice, apply it to establishments employing fewer.
Answer
Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, a "trade union" means a trade union for the time being registered under the Trade Unions Act, 1926.
Its role under this Act is procedural but substantial:
Answer
Section 4 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: the State Government shall constitute an Industrial Court consisting of such number of members as it thinks fit, one of whom shall be appointed President. A member must be qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, or must have held a judicial office in India for not less than ten years, or must have been an advocate for not less than ten years.
Its duties, under Section 5, are to decide complaints of unfair labour practices other than those under Item 1 of Schedule IV; to decide applications for recognition, cancellation, re-recognition and recognition of another union under Chapter III; to decide references made to it; and to exercise superintendence over Labour Courts under Section 44.
Answer
Section 7 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. It shall be the duty of the Labour Court:
Answer
Section 9. The Investigating Officer is under the control of the Industrial Court and exercises the powers and performs the duties imposed on him by it. Two duties are:
Under Section 28(4), when investigating a complaint he may visit the undertaking, make such enquiries as he considers necessary, and make efforts to promote a settlement.
Write Short notes on any two of the following 12 Marks
Answer
Constitution. Section 3(1): in the case of any industrial establishment in which one hundred or more workmen are employed, or have been employed on any day in the preceding twelve months, the appropriate Government may by general or special order require the employer to constitute a Works Committee.
Composition. It consists of representatives of employers and workmen engaged in the establishment, the number of workmen's representatives being not less than the number of the employer's. The workmen's representatives are chosen in the prescribed manner from among the workmen engaged in the establishment and in consultation with their registered trade union, if any.
Functions. Section 3(2): it shall be the duty of the Works Committee to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and workmen and, to that end, to comment upon matters of their common interest or concern and endeavour to compose any material difference of opinion in respect of such matters.
In practice it deals with: conditions of work, ventilation, lighting and sanitation; safety and accident prevention; medical and health services; canteen, drinking water and welfare amenities; the administration of welfare funds; educational, recreational and sports facilities; and the ventilation of small grievances before they harden into disputes.
Its limits. It is bipartite and advisory. It has no power to decide a dispute and cannot make a binding settlement. The Supreme Court has held that its function is to smooth away friction on the shop floor, that it cannot trespass upon matters which are the province of the registered or recognised union, and that it cannot supersede collective bargaining.
Maharashtra overlay. Section 20(2)(a) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 gives the recognised union alone the right to appoint the workmen's nominees on a Works Committee, and Schedule I to that Act amends Section 3 accordingly.
Answer
Definition. Section 2(kkk): "lay-off" means the failure, refusal or inability of an employer, on account of shortage of coal, power or raw materials, the accumulation of stocks, the break-down of machinery, natural calamity or any other connected reason, to give employment to a workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of his industrial establishment and who has not been retrenched. By the Explanation, a workman whose name is on the muster rolls, who presents himself for work at the appointed time and is not given employment within two hours, is deemed to have been laid off for that day.
Application. Section 25A: Sections 25C to 25E apply only to an industrial establishment in which fifty or more workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding calendar month, and not to a seasonal establishment or one in which work is performed only intermittently.
Compensation. Section 25C: a workman other than a badli or casual workman, whose name is on the muster rolls and who has completed not less than one year of continuous service, is entitled, for all days of lay-off except weekly holidays, to compensation equal to fifty per cent of the total of the basic wages and dearness allowance that would have been payable had he not been laid off, subject to a maximum of forty-five days in any period of twelve months. Beyond that, the employer may, subject to any agreement, retrench him under Section 25F, setting off the lay-off compensation paid.
Muster rolls. Section 25D: notwithstanding that workmen have been laid off, it is the duty of every employer to maintain a muster roll and to provide for entries by workmen who present themselves for work at the appointed time.
Disqualifications. Section 25E: no compensation is payable to a workman who refuses suitable alternative employment in the same establishment or in another establishment of the same employer within five miles, not requiring special skill or previous experience and at the same wages; who does not present himself at the appointed time at least once a day; or where the lay-off is due to a strike or slowing down of production on the part of workmen in another part of the establishment.
Larger establishments. Section 25M (Chapter VB, one hundred or more workmen): no workman shall be laid off except with the prior permission of the appropriate Government, save where the lay-off is due to shortage of power or to natural calamity, and in a mine also for reasons of fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or explosion. Section 25M(6) requires a muster roll to be maintained.
Answer
Concept. Section 2(f) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946: "model standing orders" means the standing orders prescribed by the appropriate Government under the Act, framed by rules made under Section 15. They are a ready-made set of conditions of employment, drawn on the matters in the Schedule, published by the Government for use by industrial establishments.
Their two statutory functions.
Their content mirrors the Schedule: classification of workmen as permanent, temporary, apprentices, probationers or badlis; manner of intimating hours of work, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; leave; entry by certain gates and liability to search; closing and reopening of sections and temporary stoppages; termination of employment and notice; suspension or dismissal for misconduct and the acts constituting misconduct; and means of redress against unfair treatment.
Importance.
Answer
Section 4 fixes the amount of compensation according to the nature of the disablement.
1. Death. Section 4(1)(a): an amount equal to fifty per cent of the monthly wages of the deceased employee multiplied by the relevant factor, or an amount of one lakh twenty thousand rupees, whichever is more. Section 4(4): in addition, the employer shall deposit with the Commissioner not less than five thousand rupees for funeral expenses, payable to the eldest surviving dependant.
2. Permanent total disablement. Section 4(1)(b): an amount equal to sixty per cent of the monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor, or one lakh forty thousand rupees, whichever is more.
3. Permanent partial disablement. Section 4(1)(c): where the injury is specified in Part II of Schedule I, such percentage of the compensation payable for permanent total disablement as is the percentage of loss of earning capacity specified in the Schedule against that injury; where the injury is not specified, such percentage of that compensation as is proportionate to the loss of earning capacity permanently caused by the injury, as assessed by a qualified medical practitioner. Where more than one injury is caused by the same accident, the amounts are aggregated, but not so as to exceed what would be payable for permanent total disablement.
4. Temporary disablement, total or partial. Section 4(1)(d): a half-monthly payment equal to twenty-five per cent of the monthly wages, payable on the sixteenth day from the date of disablement, and thereafter half-monthly during the disablement or for a period of five years, whichever is shorter.
The two inputs.
Illustration. A workman aged 30, wages above the ceiling, suffers permanent total disablement. Wages are taken at Rs. 15,000; sixty per cent is Rs. 9,000; the Schedule IV factor at 30 is 207.98; compensation is Rs. 9,000 x 207.98 = Rs. 18,71,820, which exceeds Rs. 1,40,000 and is therefore payable. If the injury were a Part II injury carrying forty per cent, the compensation would be forty per cent of that figure.
Payment. Section 4A: compensation shall be paid as soon as it falls due; where the employer does not accept liability he must make a provisional payment of what he admits; on default the Commissioner may order simple interest at twelve per cent per annum and, where the default is without justification, a penalty not exceeding fifty per cent of the compensation. Section 8: compensation for death must be deposited with the Commissioner, who apportions it among the dependants; a direct payment to a dependant is not payment of compensation.
Answer any two of the following 12 Marks
Answer
Yes. It is an unfair labour practice on the part of the trade union under Item 2 of Schedule III of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971.
Item 2 of Schedule III makes it an unfair labour practice "to coerce employees in the exercise of their right to self-organisation or to join unions or refrain from joining any union", and gives two illustrations: picketing in such a manner that non-striking employees are physically debarred from entering the workplace, and indulging in acts of force or violence or holding out threats of intimidation in connection with a strike against non-striking employees or against managerial staff.
Applying it:
Section 27 prohibits every unfair labour practice: "no employer or union and no employees shall engage in any unfair labour practice".
The constitutional dimension. The right to form associations under Article 19(1)(c) has been held to include the right not to associate. A union cannot compel membership any more than an employer can forbid it, and the employer's mirror-image conduct, discriminating in order to encourage or discourage union membership, is itself an unfair labour practice under Schedule II.
A complaint under Section 28.
Answer
The employer is in breach, and the model standing orders already govern the establishment.
Which standing orders apply: the model standing orders, by force of Section 12A, prescribed by the appropriate Government under Section 2(f) read with Section 15, and covering the Schedule matters: classification of workmen; intimation of working hours, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; leave; entry by gates and search; closing and reopening of sections; termination and notice; suspension or dismissal for misconduct and what constitutes misconduct; and means of redress.
The consequences, in order of practical importance.
Answer
The strike is illegal.
(a) without giving to the employer notice of strike, as hereinafter provided, within six weeks before striking; (b) within fourteen days of giving such notice; (c) before the expiry of the date of strike specified in any such notice as aforesaid; or (d) during the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a conciliation officer and seven days after the conclusion of such proceedings.
1. Penalty on the workmen. Section 26(1): any workman who commences, continues or otherwise acts in furtherance of a strike which is illegal is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to fifty rupees, or with both.
2. Penalty for instigation and financial aid. Section 27: any person who instigates or incites others to take part in, or otherwise acts in furtherance of, an illegal strike is punishable with imprisonment up to six months or fine up to one thousand rupees or both. Section 25 prohibits financial aid to illegal strikes, and Section 28 punishes it in the same terms.
3. No wages for the period. Workmen are not entitled to wages for the period of an illegal strike, and participation in it is ordinarily misconduct under the certified standing orders, exposing the participants to disciplinary action, though the Labour Court retains power under Section 11A to interfere with a disproportionate punishment.
4. In Maharashtra, consequences for the union. Supporting an illegal strike is the unfair labour practice in Item 1 of Schedule III of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. Under Section 12(6) the Industrial Court shall not recognise a union which has instigated, aided or assisted an illegal strike within the six months preceding its application, and under Section 13(1)(v) it shall cancel an existing recognition on that ground. Under Section 25 of that Act the State Government or the employer may refer to the Labour Court the question whether a strike is illegal.
5. What the employer may not do. Section 24(3): a lock-out declared in consequence of an illegal strike is not illegal, so the employer may lock out; but that is its only automatic protection. It cannot dismiss en masse without following the standing orders and the ordinary requirements of a domestic inquiry, and a victimising dismissal is itself an unfair labour practice under Item 1 of Schedule IV.
Answer
Yes. Negligence of the workman is not a defence under the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923.
The employer is therefore liable, unless it can bring the case within the proviso, which requires far more than negligence.
No, as a general rule, and the reasons are worth setting out.
Compensation is computed under Section 4 by reference to the nature of the disablement, and under Section 4A must be paid as soon as it falls due, failing which the Commissioner may order interest at twelve per cent and, where the default is without justification, a penalty of up to fifty per cent. An employer who disputes liability must still make a provisional payment of the amount it admits.
Answer any two of the following 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition with all four exclusions; the wide judicial meaning; continuous service under Section 25B; the three conditions in Section 25F and their mandatory character; the procedure in Sections 25G and 25H; Chapter VB and Section 25N; the consequence of breach; and the position under the 2020 Code.
Definition. Section 2(oo): "retrenchment" means the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action, but does not include:
The wide meaning. In Punjab Land Development and Reclamation Corporation v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court (1990) a Constitution Bench held that "for any reason whatsoever" means what it says: retrenchment covers every termination other than the four exclusions and other than punishment by way of disciplinary action, and is not confined to the discharge of surplus labour. The earlier narrow view, that retrenchment meant only discharge of surplus, was rejected; State Bank of India v. N. Sundara Money (1976) had already begun that movement.
Continuous service. Section 25B. Section 25F protects only a workman in continuous service for not less than one year. A workman is deemed to be in continuous service for one year if, during the preceding twelve calendar months, he has actually worked for not less than 240 days (190 days in a mine below ground). In computing those days, days on which he was laid off, on leave with wages, absent due to a temporary disablement caused by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment, and, for a female workman, on maternity leave up to twelve weeks, are counted.
The conditions precedent. Section 25F. No workman employed in any industry who has been in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until:
"Average pay" is defined in Section 2(aaa) as the average of wages payable in the three complete calendar months (monthly paid), four complete weeks (weekly paid), or twelve full working days (daily paid) preceding.
Illustration. Eleven years and eight months of continuous service, average pay Rs. 24,000 a month. The part year exceeds six months, so twelve years. Fifteen days' average pay is Rs. 12,000. Compensation is 12 x Rs. 12,000 = Rs. 1,44,000, plus one month's notice or Rs. 24,000 in lieu.
Procedure to be followed.
Chapter VB. Section 25N, in an industrial establishment, not seasonal or intermittent, in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding twelve months: no workman in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until (a) he has been given three months' notice in writing indicating the reasons, or wages in lieu, and (b) the prior permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application stating the reasons. The Government decides after enquiry and after giving the parties an opportunity of being heard; its order is final for one year and may be reviewed; and where no order is made within sixty days, permission is deemed to have been granted.
Effect of non-compliance. Section 25F is mandatory and its requirements are conditions precedent. Retrenchment in breach is void ab initio, so the workman never in law ceased to be an employee. The relief is reinstatement with continuity of service, and such back wages as the court thinks fit, later decisions requiring the workman to plead and prove that he was not gainfully employed in the interval.
Under the new law. Section 70 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 reproduces Section 25F almost word for word; Section 71 reproduces the last come first go rule and Section 72 the right of re-employment; Section 77 raises the prior-permission threshold from one hundred to three hundred workers; and Section 83 creates a worker re-skilling fund to which the employer contributes an amount equal to fifteen days' wages last drawn for every retrenched worker, credited to the worker's account within forty-five days of retrenchment.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the object and application; what standing orders are and the Schedule; certification step by step with every period; the fairness jurisdiction and its date; appeal; date of operation and posting; modification under Section 10; and enforcement through Sections 12A, 13, 13A and the courts.
Object and application. The Act requires employers in industrial establishments formally to define conditions of employment under them and to make them known to the workmen. Under Section 1(3) it applies to every industrial establishment employing one hundred or more workmen, or which employed that number on any day of the preceding twelve months, and to smaller establishments to which the appropriate Government extends it on two months' notice.
What standing orders are. Section 2(g): rules relating to the matters set out in the Schedule, which covers classification of workmen; intimation of hours of work, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; leave; entry by gates and search; closing and reopening of sections and temporary stoppages; termination and notice; suspension or dismissal for misconduct and what constitutes misconduct; and means of redress against unfair treatment.
A. Certification.
B. Modification. Section 10.
C. Enforcement.
Answer
For full marks, cover: why recognition exists and how it differs from registration; the application of Chapter III; the procedure with its qualifying figures; the mandatory refusals; the obligations in Section 19; the rights in Sections 20, 21 and 23; the contrast with Section 22; and cancellation.
The concept, and how it differs from registration. Registration under the Trade Unions Act, 1926 is a matter of legal personality: seven or more members may apply, and registration confers corporate status, the power to hold property, and immunity from criminal conspiracy (Section 17) and from civil suit (Section 18). It says nothing about who speaks for the workforce, and because registration was so easy, Indian establishments commonly had several unions and employers could say they did not know with whom to bargain.
Recognition under the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 answers that problem. It identifies one union in an undertaking as the body entitled to represent the workmen, and confers exclusive rights on it. It is granted not by the employer but by the Industrial Court, which makes it a judicial act rather than a concession.
Application. Section 10. Chapter III applies to every undertaking wherein fifty or more employees are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months. The State Government may extend it to smaller undertakings on sixty days' notice; and if the number falls below fifty continuously for one year, the Chapter ceases to apply.
Procedure for recognition.
Obligations. Section 19. A recognised union shall hold elections of its office bearers as required by its constitution; allow all its members to take part in those elections; hold a general meeting at least once a year to consider its accounts and the report of its working; and allow an auditor appointed by the State Government to audit its accounts at least once each financial year. Breach is a ground for cancellation under Section 13(1)(iii). To these must be added the obligation not to commit any unfair labour practice in Schedule III, in particular refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer (Item 3).
Rights. Section 20(1): to collect subscriptions on the premises where wages are paid; to put up a notice board and affix notices; for the prevention or settlement of an industrial dispute, to hold discussions on the premises with member employees, to meet and discuss grievances with the employer, and to inspect any place where an employee is employed; and to appear on behalf of an employee in any domestic or departmental inquiry.
Section 20(2): the recognised union alone may appoint the workmen's nominees on the Works Committee under Section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act; and no employee may appear or be represented in any proceeding under that Act except through the recognised union, the decision binding all employees in the undertaking, save in a proceeding about dismissal, discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension.
Section 21: the same exclusivity applies in proceedings about the unfair labour practices in items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV. Section 23: up to two authorised members who appear on the union's behalf are treated as on duty and paid.
The advantages over other unions. Compare Section 22, which gives an unrecognised union only two rights: to meet and discuss with the employer the grievances of an individual member relating to his discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension, and to appear for a member in a domestic inquiry. It has no access to the premises, no notice board, no right to collect subscriptions there, no place on the Works Committee, and no right to bargain. The gap between Sections 20 and 22 is the entire value of recognition.
Loss of recognition. Section 13(1): recognition shall be cancelled where it was obtained by mistake, misrepresentation or fraud; where membership has fallen below the minimum for six continuous calendar months; where the union has failed to observe Section 19; where it is not conducted bona fide in the employees' interests; where it has instigated an illegal strike; or where its registration under the Trade Unions Act has been cancelled. The Court may instead suspend its rights under Sections 20 and 21. Under Section 14, another union with the largest membership may displace it after two years, and under Section 15 a union whose recognition was cancelled may seek re-recognition.
Answer
For full marks, cover: both definitions with their deeming provisos and Schedule I; the temporary and permanent division; how each is compensated under Section 4; then the employer's defences under the proviso to Section 3(1) with their three built-in limits; and the other statutory limits on liability.
A. Total disablement. Section 2(1)(l): "total disablement" means such disablement, whether of a temporary or permanent nature, as incapacitates an employee for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident resulting in such disablement.
The proviso deems permanent total disablement to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries specified in Part II where the aggregate percentage of the loss of earning capacity, as specified against those injuries, amounts to one hundred per cent or more.
Part I of Schedule I includes: loss of both hands or amputation at higher sites; loss of a hand and a foot; double amputation through legs or thighs; loss of sight to such an extent as to render the claimant unable to perform any work for which eyesight is essential; very severe facial disfigurement; absolute deafness; and amputation of an arm through the shoulder joint.
B. Partial disablement. Section 2(1)(g): "partial disablement" means, where the disablement is of a temporary nature, such disablement as reduces the earning capacity of an employee in any employment in which he was engaged at the time of the accident; and where the disablement is of a permanent nature, such disablement as reduces his earning capacity in every employment which he was capable of undertaking at that time.
The proviso deems every injury specified in Part II of Schedule I to result in permanent partial disablement, and the Schedule fixes for each a percentage of loss of earning capacity: for example loss of one eye without complications, the other being normal, forty per cent; loss of thumb, twenty-five per cent; loss of index finger, fourteen per cent.
The two comparisons, and the difference between them. Total disablement asks whether the workman can still do all the work he could do before. Permanent partial disablement asks whether his earning capacity is reduced in every employment he was then capable of undertaking. Both are economic tests, not medical ones, and both are measured at the time of the accident, so the employer cannot argue that he might retrain.
C. How each is compensated. Section 4.
D. The employer's defences.
The main rule leaves him none. Section 3(1) imposes liability without fault: negligence need not be proved against the employer, and the workman's own contributory negligence is not a defence. The Act was passed to displace the common law defences of common employment, contributory negligence and volenti non fit injuria.
The proviso to Section 3(1) gives him two, and only two:
Three limits are built into the fault-based defences and decide most cases. They never apply to death or permanent total disablement. They require wilfulness, meaning deliberate defiance, not carelessness, forgetfulness or haste. And they require an express order or rule made for safety, or a known safety device, and direct attribution of the accident to its breach.
Other statutory limits on liability.
No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.
Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.
Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.
The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.
Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license
This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
10 August 2026.
Also from munotes.in
Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.