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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Labour Laws 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Labour Laws

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination.

This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.

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MarksPage

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  22 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer any Six of the following in not more than two sentences 12 Marks

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1.Appropriate government under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 2(a). The expression is defined by reference to who carries on the industry.

The Central Government is the appropriate Government in relation to a dispute concerning any industry carried on by or under the authority of the Central Government or by a railway company, or concerning a controlled industry specified by the Central Government, and in relation to banking and insurance companies, mines, oil fields, cantonment boards, major ports and the statutory corporations named in the section.

In relation to any other industrial dispute, the appropriate Government is the State Government.

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2.Define Closure under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 2(cc), inserted by the Amendment Act of 1982: "closure" means the permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof.

Section 25FFF governs its consequences: where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, every workman in continuous service for not less than one year is entitled to notice and compensation as if he had been retrenched, that is one month's notice or wages in lieu and fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service. Where the closure is on account of unavoidable circumstances beyond the control of the employer, the compensation shall not exceed the average pay for three months.

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3.Define Employer under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 2(g): "employer" means:

  1. in relation to an industry carried on by or under the authority of any department of the Central Government or a State Government, the authority prescribed in this behalf, or where no authority is prescribed, the head of the department; and
  2. in relation to an industry carried on by or on behalf of a local authority, the chief executive officer of that authority.
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4.Public Utility Services under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 2(n): "public utility service" means:

  1. any railway service or any transport service for the carriage of passengers or goods by air;
  2. any service in, or in connection with the working of, any major port or dock;
  3. any section of an industrial establishment on the working of which the safety of the establishment or the workmen employed therein depends;
  4. any postal, telegraph or telephone service;
  5. any industry which supplies power, light or water to the public;
  6. any system of public conservancy or sanitation; and
  7. any industry specified in the First Schedule which the appropriate Government may, by notification, declare to be a public utility service for a period not exceeding six months at a time, where public emergency or public interest so requires.
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5.Certifying officer under Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946[2]

Answer

Section 2(c): "Certifying Officer" means a Labour Commissioner or a Regional Labour Commissioner, and includes any other officer appointed by the appropriate Government, by notification, to perform the functions of a Certifying Officer under the Act.

His functions: to receive the draft standing orders under Section 3; to certify them under Section 5 after notice, fifteen days for objections, and a hearing; to adjudicate upon the fairness or reasonableness of the provisions under Section 4; to deal with applications for modification under Section 10; and to maintain the register under Section 8. Under Section 11 he has the powers of a civil court.

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6.Industrial Establishment under Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946[2]

Answer

Section 2(e): "industrial establishment" means:

  1. an industrial establishment as defined in clause (ii) of section 2 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936;
  2. a factory as defined in clause (m) of section 2 of the Factories Act, 1948;
  3. a railway as defined in the Indian Railways Act, 1890; or
  4. the establishment of a person who, for the purpose of fulfilling a contract with the owner of any industrial establishment, employs workmen.

Application. Section 1(3): the Act applies to every industrial establishment wherein one hundred or more workmen are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months, and the appropriate Government may, on not less than two months' notice, apply it to establishments employing fewer.

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7.Trade Union Under Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946[2]

Answer

Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, a "trade union" means a trade union for the time being registered under the Trade Unions Act, 1926.

Its role under this Act is procedural but substantial:

  1. under Section 3(3), the statement of particulars accompanying the draft standing orders must name the trade union to which the workmen belong;
  2. under Section 5(1), the Certifying Officer must forward a copy of the draft to the trade union, or where there is none, to the workmen, with a notice requiring objections within fifteen days;
  3. under Section 5(2), the trade union is entitled to be heard before the order is made;
  4. under Section 6, it may appeal within thirty days; and
  5. under Section 10(2), it may apply for modification of certified standing orders.
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8.Industrial Court under MRTU&PULP Act 1971[2]

Answer

Section 4 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: the State Government shall constitute an Industrial Court consisting of such number of members as it thinks fit, one of whom shall be appointed President. A member must be qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, or must have held a judicial office in India for not less than ten years, or must have been an advocate for not less than ten years.

Its duties, under Section 5, are to decide complaints of unfair labour practices other than those under Item 1 of Schedule IV; to decide applications for recognition, cancellation, re-recognition and recognition of another union under Chapter III; to decide references made to it; and to exercise superintendence over Labour Courts under Section 44.

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9.State two duties of Labour Court under MRTU&PULP Act 1971[2]

Answer

Section 7 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. It shall be the duty of the Labour Court:

  1. to decide complaints relating to unfair labour practices described in Item 1 of Schedule IV, that is, to discharge or dismiss employees by way of victimisation, not in good faith but in colourable exercise of the employer's rights, by falsely implicating an employee in a criminal case on false or concocted evidence, for patently false reasons, on untrue or trumped-up allegations of absence without leave, or in utter disregard of the principles of natural justice in the conduct of a domestic enquiry; and
  2. to try offences punishable under this Act.
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10.State two duties of investigating officer under MRTU&PULP Act1971[2]

Answer

Section 9. The Investigating Officer is under the control of the Industrial Court and exercises the powers and performs the duties imposed on him by it. Two duties are:

  1. to assist the Industrial Court in matters of verification of membership of unions, and to assist the Industrial and Labour Courts in investigating into complaints relating to unfair labour practices; and
  2. to report to the Industrial Court or the Labour Court the existence of any unfair labour practice in any industry or undertaking, together with the names and addresses of the persons said to be engaged in it and any other information he thinks fit to report.

Under Section 28(4), when investigating a complaint he may visit the undertaking, make such enquiries as he considers necessary, and make efforts to promote a settlement.

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SECTION II

Write Short notes on any two of the following 12 Marks

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11.Discuss the role and functions of Works Committee under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[6]

Answer

Constitution. Section 3(1): in the case of any industrial establishment in which one hundred or more workmen are employed, or have been employed on any day in the preceding twelve months, the appropriate Government may by general or special order require the employer to constitute a Works Committee.

Composition. It consists of representatives of employers and workmen engaged in the establishment, the number of workmen's representatives being not less than the number of the employer's. The workmen's representatives are chosen in the prescribed manner from among the workmen engaged in the establishment and in consultation with their registered trade union, if any.

Functions. Section 3(2): it shall be the duty of the Works Committee to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and workmen and, to that end, to comment upon matters of their common interest or concern and endeavour to compose any material difference of opinion in respect of such matters.

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In practice it deals with: conditions of work, ventilation, lighting and sanitation; safety and accident prevention; medical and health services; canteen, drinking water and welfare amenities; the administration of welfare funds; educational, recreational and sports facilities; and the ventilation of small grievances before they harden into disputes.

Its limits. It is bipartite and advisory. It has no power to decide a dispute and cannot make a binding settlement. The Supreme Court has held that its function is to smooth away friction on the shop floor, that it cannot trespass upon matters which are the province of the registered or recognised union, and that it cannot supersede collective bargaining.

Maharashtra overlay. Section 20(2)(a) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 gives the recognised union alone the right to appoint the workmen's nominees on a Works Committee, and Schedule I to that Act amends Section 3 accordingly.

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12.Explain the provisions relating to Lay-off under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[6]

Answer

Definition. Section 2(kkk): "lay-off" means the failure, refusal or inability of an employer, on account of shortage of coal, power or raw materials, the accumulation of stocks, the break-down of machinery, natural calamity or any other connected reason, to give employment to a workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of his industrial establishment and who has not been retrenched. By the Explanation, a workman whose name is on the muster rolls, who presents himself for work at the appointed time and is not given employment within two hours, is deemed to have been laid off for that day.

Application. Section 25A: Sections 25C to 25E apply only to an industrial establishment in which fifty or more workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding calendar month, and not to a seasonal establishment or one in which work is performed only intermittently.

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Compensation. Section 25C: a workman other than a badli or casual workman, whose name is on the muster rolls and who has completed not less than one year of continuous service, is entitled, for all days of lay-off except weekly holidays, to compensation equal to fifty per cent of the total of the basic wages and dearness allowance that would have been payable had he not been laid off, subject to a maximum of forty-five days in any period of twelve months. Beyond that, the employer may, subject to any agreement, retrench him under Section 25F, setting off the lay-off compensation paid.

Muster rolls. Section 25D: notwithstanding that workmen have been laid off, it is the duty of every employer to maintain a muster roll and to provide for entries by workmen who present themselves for work at the appointed time.

Disqualifications. Section 25E: no compensation is payable to a workman who refuses suitable alternative employment in the same establishment or in another establishment of the same employer within five miles, not requiring special skill or previous experience and at the same wages; who does not present himself at the appointed time at least once a day; or where the lay-off is due to a strike or slowing down of production on the part of workmen in another part of the establishment.

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Larger establishments. Section 25M (Chapter VB, one hundred or more workmen): no workman shall be laid off except with the prior permission of the appropriate Government, save where the lay-off is due to shortage of power or to natural calamity, and in a mine also for reasons of fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or explosion. Section 25M(6) requires a muster roll to be maintained.

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13.Explain the concept and importance of Model Standing Orders under IE(SO) Act 1946.[6]

Answer

Concept. Section 2(f) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946: "model standing orders" means the standing orders prescribed by the appropriate Government under the Act, framed by rules made under Section 15. They are a ready-made set of conditions of employment, drawn on the matters in the Schedule, published by the Government for use by industrial establishments.

Their two statutory functions.

  1. As a template. Section 3(2): the employer's draft standing orders shall be, so far as is practicable, in conformity with the model standing orders.
  2. As a default. Section 12A: from the date on which the Act becomes applicable to an industrial establishment until the standing orders as finally certified come into operation, the model standing orders shall be deemed to be adopted in that establishment.
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Their content mirrors the Schedule: classification of workmen as permanent, temporary, apprentices, probationers or badlis; manner of intimating hours of work, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; leave; entry by certain gates and liability to search; closing and reopening of sections and temporary stoppages; termination of employment and notice; suspension or dismissal for misconduct and the acts constituting misconduct; and means of redress against unfair treatment.

Importance.

  1. They close the gap before certification. Certification takes months, and the timetable is largely in the employer's hands. Section 12A ensures that from the very first day the Act applies, the establishment has defined conditions of service.
  2. They remove any advantage in delay. Since the model orders bind meanwhile, and Section 13(1) imposes a continuing daily fine for failure to submit the draft, an employer gains nothing by putting off certification.
  3. They answer the case of the establishment that never certifies. Where an employer has not framed or certified standing orders and regulates service conditions by internal policy, the model standing orders govern and the internal policy does not.
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  1. They set a benchmark of fairness. Because the draft must conform so far as practicable, and because Section 4 requires the Certifying Officer to adjudicate on fairness or reasonableness, a term markedly worse than the model invites refusal or modification.
  2. They promote uniformity across establishments in the same industry, which makes conditions comparable and disputes fewer.
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14.Calculation of Compensation under Employees' Compensation Act, 1923[6]

Answer

Section 4 fixes the amount of compensation according to the nature of the disablement.

1. Death. Section 4(1)(a): an amount equal to fifty per cent of the monthly wages of the deceased employee multiplied by the relevant factor, or an amount of one lakh twenty thousand rupees, whichever is more. Section 4(4): in addition, the employer shall deposit with the Commissioner not less than five thousand rupees for funeral expenses, payable to the eldest surviving dependant.

2. Permanent total disablement. Section 4(1)(b): an amount equal to sixty per cent of the monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor, or one lakh forty thousand rupees, whichever is more.

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3. Permanent partial disablement. Section 4(1)(c): where the injury is specified in Part II of Schedule I, such percentage of the compensation payable for permanent total disablement as is the percentage of loss of earning capacity specified in the Schedule against that injury; where the injury is not specified, such percentage of that compensation as is proportionate to the loss of earning capacity permanently caused by the injury, as assessed by a qualified medical practitioner. Where more than one injury is caused by the same accident, the amounts are aggregated, but not so as to exceed what would be payable for permanent total disablement.

4. Temporary disablement, total or partial. Section 4(1)(d): a half-monthly payment equal to twenty-five per cent of the monthly wages, payable on the sixteenth day from the date of disablement, and thereafter half-monthly during the disablement or for a period of five years, whichever is shorter.

The two inputs.

  1. Monthly wages are computed under Section 5, and for the purpose of the calculation are subject to the notified ceiling of Rs. 15,000 per month (raised from Rs. 8,000 with effect from 3 January 2020). A worker earning more is compensated as though he earned the ceiling.
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  1. The relevant factor is taken from Schedule IV against the completed years of the employee's age on his last birthday preceding the date on which compensation fell due. It is highest for the young and falls as age rises, because a younger worker loses more earning years.

Illustration. A workman aged 30, wages above the ceiling, suffers permanent total disablement. Wages are taken at Rs. 15,000; sixty per cent is Rs. 9,000; the Schedule IV factor at 30 is 207.98; compensation is Rs. 9,000 x 207.98 = Rs. 18,71,820, which exceeds Rs. 1,40,000 and is therefore payable. If the injury were a Part II injury carrying forty per cent, the compensation would be forty per cent of that figure.

Payment. Section 4A: compensation shall be paid as soon as it falls due; where the employer does not accept liability he must make a provisional payment of what he admits; on default the Commissioner may order simple interest at twelve per cent per annum and, where the default is without justification, a penalty not exceeding fifty per cent of the compensation. Section 8: compensation for death must be deposited with the Commissioner, who apportions it among the dependants; a direct payment to a dependant is not payment of compensation.

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SECTION III

Answer any two of the following 12 Marks

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15.A recognized trade union threatens workers who are not its members and coerces them to join, failing which they may face workplace harassment.[6]

  • (a) Analyse whether the conduct of the union amounts to an unfair labour practice.
  • (b) What action can be taken under the MRTU&PULP Act?

Answer

(a) Analyse whether the conduct of the union amounts to an unfair labour practice.

Yes. It is an unfair labour practice on the part of the trade union under Item 2 of Schedule III of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971.

Item 2 of Schedule III makes it an unfair labour practice "to coerce employees in the exercise of their right to self-organisation or to join unions or refrain from joining any union", and gives two illustrations: picketing in such a manner that non-striking employees are physically debarred from entering the workplace, and indulging in acts of force or violence or holding out threats of intimidation in connection with a strike against non-striking employees or against managerial staff.

Applying it:

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  1. The workers threatened are not members of the union. Their right to refrain from joining any union is expressly protected by Item 2, in the same words as the right to join.
  2. The union is coercing them, by threats of workplace harassment if they do not join. Coercion need not be physical; a threat that makes joining the only safe course is coercion.
  3. That the union is recognised makes it worse, not better. Recognition is conferred under Sections 11 and 12 so that the union may bargain for the whole workforce; it confers no power to compel membership. A recognised union that abuses its position also risks Item 3 of Schedule III, refusing to bargain in good faith, and, if it instigates coercive collective action, Item 5, which covers wilful go slow, squatting and gherao.

Section 27 prohibits every unfair labour practice: "no employer or union and no employees shall engage in any unfair labour practice".

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The constitutional dimension. The right to form associations under Article 19(1)(c) has been held to include the right not to associate. A union cannot compel membership any more than an employer can forbid it, and the employer's mirror-image conduct, discriminating in order to encourage or discourage union membership, is itself an unfair labour practice under Schedule II.

(b) What action can be taken under the MRTU&PULP Act?

A complaint under Section 28.

  1. Who may complain: any employee, union, employer or Investigating Officer. The coerced workers may complain themselves, or through a union of their own, and the employer may also complain, since Section 28 is not confined to workmen.
  2. Limitation: within ninety days of the occurrence of the unfair labour practice, with power in the Court to entertain a later complaint on showing good and sufficient reasons. Where the coercion is continuing, each act is a fresh occurrence.
  3. Forum: this is a Schedule III practice and therefore not Item 1 of Schedule IV, so the complaint lies to the Industrial Court under Section 5, not to the Labour Court.
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  1. Investigation: under Section 28(3) and (4) the Court may direct the Investigating Officer to investigate; he may visit the undertaking, make enquiries and attempt to promote a settlement, and must report.
  2. Relief. Section 30: the Court may declare the practice, direct the union to cease and desist from it, direct it to take affirmative action, and grant interim relief pending the final decision.
  3. Consequences for the union's status. This is the point that gives the remedy real force. Under Section 13(1)(iv) the Industrial Court shall cancel recognition where the union is not being conducted bona fide in the interests of the employees, and under Section 13 it may instead suspend the union's rights under Sections 20 and 21 for such period as it thinks fit. A union that coerces the very employees it represents is squarely within that ground.
  4. Finality and recovery. Section 28(7) makes the order final and not open to question in any civil or criminal court; Section 50 allows money due under it to be recovered as arrears of land revenue.
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16.An industrial establishment with more than the prescribed number of employees has not framed or certified its Standing Orders. The employer continues to regulate service conditions arbitrarily.[6]

  • (a) Discuss the legal position under the IE(SO) Act 1946 Act.
  • (b) What are the consequences, and which Standing Orders will apply in such a case?

Answer

(a) Discuss the legal position under the IE(SO) Act 1946 Act.

The employer is in breach, and the model standing orders already govern the establishment.

  1. The Act applies. Section 1(3): the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 applies to every industrial establishment wherein one hundred or more workmen are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months, and to any smaller establishment to which the appropriate Government extends it on not less than two months' notice. The problem states that the establishment exceeds the prescribed number, so the Act applies.
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  1. The duty to submit. Section 3(1): within six months from the date on which the Act becomes applicable, the employer shall submit to the Certifying Officer five copies of the draft standing orders proposed for adoption. Section 3(2) requires provision for every matter set out in the Schedule applicable to the establishment and conformity, so far as practicable, with the model standing orders. This is a statutory duty, not an option.
  2. The gap is already filled. Section 12A: from the date the Act becomes applicable until the standing orders as finally certified come into operation, the model standing orders shall be deemed to be adopted in that establishment. The employer's failure therefore does not leave it free to regulate service conditions as it pleases; it is bound by the model standing orders.
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  1. The employer cannot regulate arbitrarily. Since the model standing orders are deemed adopted, they are the conditions of service of the establishment. An internal policy or circular inconsistent with them is inoperative, and acting in contravention of standing orders that are in force is an offence under Section 13(2).
  2. The employer is also liable to prosecution. Section 13(1): an employer who fails to submit draft standing orders as required by Section 3, or who modifies his standing orders otherwise than in accordance with Section 10, is punishable with fine up to five thousand rupees, and in the case of a continuing offence with a further fine up to two hundred rupees for every day after the first during which the offence continues. Section 13(3) requires the previous sanction of the appropriate Government for a prosecution, and Section 13(4) provides that no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the second class shall try the offence.
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(b) What are the consequences, and which Standing Orders will apply in such a case?

Which standing orders apply: the model standing orders, by force of Section 12A, prescribed by the appropriate Government under Section 2(f) read with Section 15, and covering the Schedule matters: classification of workmen; intimation of working hours, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; leave; entry by gates and search; closing and reopening of sections; termination and notice; suspension or dismissal for misconduct and what constitutes misconduct; and means of redress.

The consequences, in order of practical importance.

  1. The employer's arbitrary regulation is ineffective. Any condition it imposes that conflicts with the model standing orders does not bind the workmen, and a dismissal or punishment inflicted otherwise than in accordance with them is bad.
  2. Subsistence allowance is payable if it suspends a workman pending inquiry, at fifty per cent of wages for the first ninety days and seventy-five per cent thereafter where the delay is not attributable to the workman, under Section 10A, with a remedy before the Labour Court.
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  1. Prosecution under Section 13(1), with the continuing daily fine, on the sanction of the appropriate Government.
  2. Adjudication of disputes about the standing orders: any question of their application or interpretation may be referred by an employer, workman, trade union or other representative body to the Labour Court under Section 13A, whose decision is final and binding.
  3. The workmen or their union may press for certification, and may also apply for modification of the standing orders once certified, under Section 10(2).
  4. Industrial dispute. Arbitrary alteration of conditions of service in a Fourth Schedule matter without twenty-one days' notice under Section 9A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is separately bad, and in Maharashtra a pattern of arbitrary treatment may amount to unfair labour practices under Schedule IV of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971, complainable to the Labour Court or Industrial Court under Section 28 within ninety days.
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17.Workers in a public utility service go on strike without giving prior notice to the employer. The employer claims that the strike is illegal.[6]

  • (a) Analyse whether the strike is legal under the Industrial Disputes Act.
  • (b) What are the legal consequences of an illegal strike?

Answer

(a) Analyse whether the strike is legal under the Industrial Disputes Act.

The strike is illegal.

  1. Section 22(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: no person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract:

(a) without giving to the employer notice of strike, as hereinafter provided, within six weeks before striking; (b) within fourteen days of giving such notice; (c) before the expiry of the date of strike specified in any such notice as aforesaid; or (d) during the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a conciliation officer and seven days after the conclusion of such proceedings.

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  1. Section 24(1)(i): a strike is illegal if it is commenced or declared in contravention of Section 22 or Section 23.
  2. On these facts, no notice at all was given, so limb (a) of Section 22(1) is contravened and the strike is illegal under Section 24(1)(i).
  3. The exception does not apply. Section 22(3) dispenses with notice where there is already in existence a lock-out in the public utility service, but even then the employer must send intimation on the day the strike is declared. Nothing in the facts suggests a subsisting lock-out.
  4. Note two limits of the section. It applies only to a strike in breach of contract, and only in a public utility service as defined in Section 2(n), either one of the six categories that are public utility services at all times, or a First Schedule industry declared to be one for a period not exceeding six months at a time. The problem states that this is a public utility service, so the point is conceded.
  5. Section 22(4) and (5) prescribe the manner of the notice, and Section 22(6) requires the employer to report to the appropriate Government within five days the receipt of a strike notice.
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(b) What are the legal consequences of an illegal strike?

1. Penalty on the workmen. Section 26(1): any workman who commences, continues or otherwise acts in furtherance of a strike which is illegal is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to fifty rupees, or with both.

2. Penalty for instigation and financial aid. Section 27: any person who instigates or incites others to take part in, or otherwise acts in furtherance of, an illegal strike is punishable with imprisonment up to six months or fine up to one thousand rupees or both. Section 25 prohibits financial aid to illegal strikes, and Section 28 punishes it in the same terms.

3. No wages for the period. Workmen are not entitled to wages for the period of an illegal strike, and participation in it is ordinarily misconduct under the certified standing orders, exposing the participants to disciplinary action, though the Labour Court retains power under Section 11A to interfere with a disproportionate punishment.

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4. In Maharashtra, consequences for the union. Supporting an illegal strike is the unfair labour practice in Item 1 of Schedule III of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. Under Section 12(6) the Industrial Court shall not recognise a union which has instigated, aided or assisted an illegal strike within the six months preceding its application, and under Section 13(1)(v) it shall cancel an existing recognition on that ground. Under Section 25 of that Act the State Government or the employer may refer to the Labour Court the question whether a strike is illegal.

5. What the employer may not do. Section 24(3): a lock-out declared in consequence of an illegal strike is not illegal, so the employer may lock out; but that is its only automatic protection. It cannot dismiss en masse without following the standing orders and the ordinary requirements of a domestic inquiry, and a victimising dismissal is itself an unfair labour practice under Item 1 of Schedule IV.

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18.A factory worker is injured while operating machinery during working hours. The employer argues that the injury occurred due to the worker's negligence and refuses compensation.[6]

  • (a) Examine whether the employer is liable to pay compensation.
  • (b) Does negligence of the employee affect liability under the Employees Compensation Act?

Answer

(a) Examine whether the employer is liable to pay compensation.

Yes. Negligence of the workman is not a defence under the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923.

  1. The claim is complete under Section 3(1): there is a personal injury, caused by an accident, in the course of the employment, since he was at his machine during working hours, and arising out of it, since injury from machinery is the characteristic risk of factory work.
  2. He is an "employee" under Section 2(1)(dd): work in a factory with machinery driven by power is an employment specified in Schedule II, and his employment is neither casual nor outside the employer's trade or business.
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  1. Liability is strict. The whole purpose of the Act was to replace the common law, under which a workman had to prove his employer's negligence and could be defeated by the doctrines of common employment, contributory negligence and volenti non fit injuria. Section 3(1) imposes liability on the fact of the accident, and the employer's plea of the worker's negligence is not one of the statutory exceptions.
  2. The only exceptions are in the proviso to Section 3(1), and mere negligence is not among them. They are (i) an injury which does not result in disablement exceeding three days; and (ii) an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement where the accident is directly attributable to the employee being under the influence of drink or drugs, or to his wilful disobedience of an order or rule expressly framed for the purpose of securing the safety of employees, or to his wilful removal or disregard of a safety guard or device he knew to have been provided for his safety.

The employer is therefore liable, unless it can bring the case within the proviso, which requires far more than negligence.

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(b) Does negligence of the employee affect liability under the Employees Compensation Act?

No, as a general rule, and the reasons are worth setting out.

  1. Contributory negligence is not a defence. The Act nowhere mentions it. Compensation is not damages for a wrong; it is a statutory benefit payable on the occurrence of an employment injury, and it is not reduced in proportion to the workman's fault.
  2. Only wilful misconduct of a specified kind counts, and only in less serious cases. The proviso requires wilfulness, meaning a deliberate and conscious disregard of a known rule. Carelessness, forgetfulness, haste, familiarity-bred laxity and errors of judgement are not wilful disobedience. As the courts have put it, the Act contemplates the ordinary frailty of workers doing repetitive work at speed.
  3. The exceptions never apply to the gravest cases. By their own opening words they are confined to an injury "not resulting in death or permanent total disablement". So even deliberate defiance does not defeat a claim where the workman is killed or permanently and totally disabled. Parliament refused to visit a workman's folly on his dependants.
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  1. The employer must prove three things to succeed under the proviso: that the injury did not result in death or permanent total disablement; that there was an express order or rule made for safety, or a safety guard the workman knew of; and that the accident was directly attributable to his wilful breach. Providing equipment is not the same as expressly ordering its use and enforcing that order, and if the injury would have occurred anyway, the breach did not cause it.
  2. The employer's own negligence is equally irrelevant to liability under this Act, though it may found a separate civil action in tort for higher damages. Section 3(5) requires the workman to elect: no suit for damages lies where he has instituted a claim before the Commissioner or has agreed with the employer.

Compensation is computed under Section 4 by reference to the nature of the disablement, and under Section 4A must be paid as soon as it falls due, failing which the Commissioner may order interest at twelve per cent and, where the default is without justification, a penalty of up to fifty per cent. An employer who disputes liability must still make a provisional payment of the amount it admits.

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SECTION IV

Answer any two of the following 24 Marks

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19.Define "Retrenchment" under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Explain in detail the conditions precedent to retrenchment and the procedure to be followed by the employer.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition with all four exclusions; the wide judicial meaning; continuous service under Section 25B; the three conditions in Section 25F and their mandatory character; the procedure in Sections 25G and 25H; Chapter VB and Section 25N; the consequence of breach; and the position under the 2020 Code.

Definition. Section 2(oo): "retrenchment" means the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action, but does not include:

  1. voluntary retirement of the workman;
  2. retirement on reaching the age of superannuation, if the contract of employment contains a stipulation in that behalf;
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  1. (bb) termination as a result of the non-renewal of the contract of employment between the employer and the workman on its expiry, or of such contract being terminated under a stipulation contained in that behalf therein; or
  2. (c) termination of the service of a workman on the ground of continued ill-health.

The wide meaning. In Punjab Land Development and Reclamation Corporation v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court (1990) a Constitution Bench held that "for any reason whatsoever" means what it says: retrenchment covers every termination other than the four exclusions and other than punishment by way of disciplinary action, and is not confined to the discharge of surplus labour. The earlier narrow view, that retrenchment meant only discharge of surplus, was rejected; State Bank of India v. N. Sundara Money (1976) had already begun that movement.

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Continuous service. Section 25B. Section 25F protects only a workman in continuous service for not less than one year. A workman is deemed to be in continuous service for one year if, during the preceding twelve calendar months, he has actually worked for not less than 240 days (190 days in a mine below ground). In computing those days, days on which he was laid off, on leave with wages, absent due to a temporary disablement caused by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment, and, for a female workman, on maternity leave up to twelve weeks, are counted.

The conditions precedent. Section 25F. No workman employed in any industry who has been in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until:

  1. (a) he has been given one month's notice in writing indicating the reasons for retrenchment and the period of notice has expired, or he has been paid, in lieu of such notice, wages for the period of the notice;
  2. (b) he has been paid, at the time of retrenchment, compensation equivalent to fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service or any part thereof in excess of six months; and
  3. (c) notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate Government or such authority as may be specified by notification.
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"Average pay" is defined in Section 2(aaa) as the average of wages payable in the three complete calendar months (monthly paid), four complete weeks (weekly paid), or twelve full working days (daily paid) preceding.

Illustration. Eleven years and eight months of continuous service, average pay Rs. 24,000 a month. The part year exceeds six months, so twelve years. Fifteen days' average pay is Rs. 12,000. Compensation is 12 x Rs. 12,000 = Rs. 1,44,000, plus one month's notice or Rs. 24,000 in lieu.

Procedure to be followed.

  1. Section 25G, last come first go. Where any workman in an industrial establishment who is a citizen of India is to be retrenched, and he belongs to a particular category of workmen in that establishment, in the absence of any agreement the employer shall ordinarily retrench the workman who was the last person to be employed in that category, unless for reasons to be recorded he retrenches any other workman.
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  1. Section 25H, re-employment. Where any workman is retrenched and the employer proposes to take into his employment any persons, he shall, in the prescribed manner, give an opportunity to the retrenched workmen who are citizens of India to offer themselves for re-employment, and such retrenched workmen who offer themselves shall have preference over other persons.
  2. Order of retrenchment: the employer must identify the category, apply Section 25G within it, give the notice and pay the compensation at the time of retrenchment, and serve notice on the Government.

Chapter VB. Section 25N, in an industrial establishment, not seasonal or intermittent, in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding twelve months: no workman in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until (a) he has been given three months' notice in writing indicating the reasons, or wages in lieu, and (b) the prior permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application stating the reasons. The Government decides after enquiry and after giving the parties an opportunity of being heard; its order is final for one year and may be reviewed; and where no order is made within sixty days, permission is deemed to have been granted.

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Effect of non-compliance. Section 25F is mandatory and its requirements are conditions precedent. Retrenchment in breach is void ab initio, so the workman never in law ceased to be an employee. The relief is reinstatement with continuity of service, and such back wages as the court thinks fit, later decisions requiring the workman to plead and prove that he was not gainfully employed in the interval.

Under the new law. Section 70 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 reproduces Section 25F almost word for word; Section 71 reproduces the last come first go rule and Section 72 the right of re-employment; Section 77 raises the prior-permission threshold from one hundred to three hundred workers; and Section 83 creates a worker re-skilling fund to which the employer contributes an amount equal to fifteen days' wages last drawn for every retrenched worker, credited to the worker's account within forty-five days of retrenchment.

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20.Explain the procedure for certification, modification, and enforcement of Standing Orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the object and application; what standing orders are and the Schedule; certification step by step with every period; the fairness jurisdiction and its date; appeal; date of operation and posting; modification under Section 10; and enforcement through Sections 12A, 13, 13A and the courts.

Object and application. The Act requires employers in industrial establishments formally to define conditions of employment under them and to make them known to the workmen. Under Section 1(3) it applies to every industrial establishment employing one hundred or more workmen, or which employed that number on any day of the preceding twelve months, and to smaller establishments to which the appropriate Government extends it on two months' notice.

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What standing orders are. Section 2(g): rules relating to the matters set out in the Schedule, which covers classification of workmen; intimation of hours of work, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; leave; entry by gates and search; closing and reopening of sections and temporary stoppages; termination and notice; suspension or dismissal for misconduct and what constitutes misconduct; and means of redress against unfair treatment.

A. Certification.

  1. Submission. Section 3(1): within six months of the Act becoming applicable, the employer submits five copies of the draft to the Certifying Officer, with a statement of prescribed particulars of the workmen including the name of their trade union. Section 3(2): the draft must cover every applicable Schedule matter and be, so far as practicable, in conformity with the model standing orders.
  2. Conditions. Section 4: standing orders are certifiable if provision is made for every applicable Schedule matter and they are otherwise in conformity with the Act; and it is the function of the Certifying Officer or the appellate authority to adjudicate upon the fairness or reasonableness of the provisions, a jurisdiction inserted by the 1956 amendment.
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  1. Notice and objections. Section 5(1): the Certifying Officer forwards a copy to the trade union, or where there is none to the workmen, with notice requiring objections within fifteen days.
  2. Hearing and order. Section 5(2): after giving the parties an opportunity of being heard, he decides what modification or addition is necessary to render the draft certifiable and makes an order in writing.
  3. Certification. Section 5(3): he certifies the standing orders and within seven days sends authenticated copies to the employer and to the union or the workmen's representatives.
  4. Appeal. Section 6: any aggrieved employer, workman, trade union or prescribed representative may appeal to the appellate authority within thirty days; the authority confirms the orders as certified or after amendment; its decision is final; within seven days it sends copies to the parties and to the Certifying Officer, who amends the register under Section 8.
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  1. Date of operation. Section 7: on the expiry of thirty days from the date copies were sent under Section 5(3), or seven days from the date copies of the appellate order were sent.
  2. Posting. Section 9: the text must be prominently posted in English and in the language understood by the majority of the workmen on special boards at or near the entrance and in all departments.

B. Modification. Section 10.

  1. Section 10(1): certified standing orders shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of six months from the date they, or the last modifications, came into operation, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen or a trade union or other representative body.
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  1. Section 10(2): thereafter the employer or any workman or a trade union or other representative body may apply to the Certifying Officer, accompanied by copies of the modifications proposed and, where by agreement, a certified copy of the agreement.
  2. Section 10(3): the provisions applicable to original certification apply, so the application goes through notice, fifteen days for objections, a hearing, an order, an appeal within thirty days, and a fresh date of operation.

C. Enforcement.

  1. The interim rule. Section 12A: until the standing orders are certified, the model standing orders are deemed to be adopted, so the establishment is never without conditions of service.
  2. Statutory force. Certified standing orders operate as the conditions of service of the establishment. They bind an incoming purchaser of the undertaking, they prevail over an inconsistent individual contract, and Section 36 makes oral evidence in contradiction of them inadmissible.
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  1. Offences. Section 13(1): an employer who fails to submit the draft, or who modifies standing orders otherwise than in accordance with Section 10, is punishable with fine up to five thousand rupees and a further fine up to two hundred rupees for every day the offence continues. Section 13(2): an employer who does any act in contravention of the certified standing orders is punishable with fine up to one hundred rupees and a further fine of twenty-five rupees a day. Section 13(3): prosecution requires the previous sanction of the appropriate Government. Section 13(4): no court inferior to a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the second class shall try the offence.
  2. Adjudication. Section 13A: any question relating to the application or interpretation of certified standing orders may be referred by an employer, workman, trade union or other representative body to a Labour Court, whose decision is final and binding. Section 10A sends disputes about subsistence allowance to the same court.
  3. Powers. Section 11: the Certifying Officer and the appellate authority have the powers of a civil court to receive evidence, administer oaths, enforce attendance and compel production of documents.
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21.Explain the concept of recognition of trade unions under MRTU&PULP Act. Discuss the procedure for recognition, the rights and obligations of a recognized union, and the advantages it enjoys over other unions.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: why recognition exists and how it differs from registration; the application of Chapter III; the procedure with its qualifying figures; the mandatory refusals; the obligations in Section 19; the rights in Sections 20, 21 and 23; the contrast with Section 22; and cancellation.

The concept, and how it differs from registration. Registration under the Trade Unions Act, 1926 is a matter of legal personality: seven or more members may apply, and registration confers corporate status, the power to hold property, and immunity from criminal conspiracy (Section 17) and from civil suit (Section 18). It says nothing about who speaks for the workforce, and because registration was so easy, Indian establishments commonly had several unions and employers could say they did not know with whom to bargain.

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Recognition under the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 answers that problem. It identifies one union in an undertaking as the body entitled to represent the workmen, and confers exclusive rights on it. It is granted not by the employer but by the Industrial Court, which makes it a judicial act rather than a concession.

Application. Section 10. Chapter III applies to every undertaking wherein fifty or more employees are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months. The State Government may extend it to smaller undertakings on sixty days' notice; and if the number falls below fifty continuously for one year, the Chapter ceases to apply.

Procedure for recognition.

  1. Qualification. Section 11(1): a union which has, for the whole of the period of six calendar months immediately preceding the calendar month of application, a membership of not less than thirty per cent of the total number of employees in the undertaking may apply in the prescribed form to the Industrial Court.
  2. Time. Section 11(2): the application is to be disposed of as far as possible within three months where the undertaking is in one local area, and within four months otherwise.
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  1. Notice and objections. Section 12(1): on preliminary scrutiny the Industrial Court causes notice to be displayed on the notice board of the undertaking, declaring its intention to consider the application and calling on other unions, the employer and the employees to show cause.
  2. Enquiry and grant. Section 12(2): after considering objections and holding such enquiry as it thinks fit, if the conditions in Section 11 are satisfied and the union complies with Section 19, the Court grants recognition and issues a certificate.
  3. The competing union. Section 12(3): if the Court concludes that another union has the largest membership and has notified its claim, and that union satisfies Sections 11 and 19, recognition is granted to that union instead; by the Explanation it is deemed to have applied in the same calendar month.
  4. One only. Section 12(4): there shall not at any time be more than one recognised union for the same undertaking.
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  1. Two mandatory refusals. Section 12(5): the Court shall not recognise a union whose application is not bona fide in the interest of the employees but is made in the interest of the employer. Section 12(6): it shall not recognise a union which, within the six months immediately preceding the application, has instigated, aided or assisted an illegal strike.
  2. Verification of membership is carried out by the Investigating Officer under Section 9(2).

Obligations. Section 19. A recognised union shall hold elections of its office bearers as required by its constitution; allow all its members to take part in those elections; hold a general meeting at least once a year to consider its accounts and the report of its working; and allow an auditor appointed by the State Government to audit its accounts at least once each financial year. Breach is a ground for cancellation under Section 13(1)(iii). To these must be added the obligation not to commit any unfair labour practice in Schedule III, in particular refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer (Item 3).

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Rights. Section 20(1): to collect subscriptions on the premises where wages are paid; to put up a notice board and affix notices; for the prevention or settlement of an industrial dispute, to hold discussions on the premises with member employees, to meet and discuss grievances with the employer, and to inspect any place where an employee is employed; and to appear on behalf of an employee in any domestic or departmental inquiry.

Section 20(2): the recognised union alone may appoint the workmen's nominees on the Works Committee under Section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act; and no employee may appear or be represented in any proceeding under that Act except through the recognised union, the decision binding all employees in the undertaking, save in a proceeding about dismissal, discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension.

Section 21: the same exclusivity applies in proceedings about the unfair labour practices in items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV. Section 23: up to two authorised members who appear on the union's behalf are treated as on duty and paid.

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The advantages over other unions. Compare Section 22, which gives an unrecognised union only two rights: to meet and discuss with the employer the grievances of an individual member relating to his discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension, and to appear for a member in a domestic inquiry. It has no access to the premises, no notice board, no right to collect subscriptions there, no place on the Works Committee, and no right to bargain. The gap between Sections 20 and 22 is the entire value of recognition.

Loss of recognition. Section 13(1): recognition shall be cancelled where it was obtained by mistake, misrepresentation or fraud; where membership has fallen below the minimum for six continuous calendar months; where the union has failed to observe Section 19; where it is not conducted bona fide in the employees' interests; where it has instigated an illegal strike; or where its registration under the Trade Unions Act has been cancelled. The Court may instead suspend its rights under Sections 20 and 21. Under Section 14, another union with the largest membership may displace it after two years, and under Section 15 a union whose recognition was cancelled may seek re-recognition.

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22.Discuss total disablement, partial disablement and employer's defences under Employees's Compensation Act.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: both definitions with their deeming provisos and Schedule I; the temporary and permanent division; how each is compensated under Section 4; then the employer's defences under the proviso to Section 3(1) with their three built-in limits; and the other statutory limits on liability.

A. Total disablement. Section 2(1)(l): "total disablement" means such disablement, whether of a temporary or permanent nature, as incapacitates an employee for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident resulting in such disablement.

The proviso deems permanent total disablement to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries specified in Part II where the aggregate percentage of the loss of earning capacity, as specified against those injuries, amounts to one hundred per cent or more.

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Part I of Schedule I includes: loss of both hands or amputation at higher sites; loss of a hand and a foot; double amputation through legs or thighs; loss of sight to such an extent as to render the claimant unable to perform any work for which eyesight is essential; very severe facial disfigurement; absolute deafness; and amputation of an arm through the shoulder joint.

B. Partial disablement. Section 2(1)(g): "partial disablement" means, where the disablement is of a temporary nature, such disablement as reduces the earning capacity of an employee in any employment in which he was engaged at the time of the accident; and where the disablement is of a permanent nature, such disablement as reduces his earning capacity in every employment which he was capable of undertaking at that time.

The proviso deems every injury specified in Part II of Schedule I to result in permanent partial disablement, and the Schedule fixes for each a percentage of loss of earning capacity: for example loss of one eye without complications, the other being normal, forty per cent; loss of thumb, twenty-five per cent; loss of index finger, fourteen per cent.

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The two comparisons, and the difference between them. Total disablement asks whether the workman can still do all the work he could do before. Permanent partial disablement asks whether his earning capacity is reduced in every employment he was then capable of undertaking. Both are economic tests, not medical ones, and both are measured at the time of the accident, so the employer cannot argue that he might retrain.

C. How each is compensated. Section 4.

  1. Permanent total disablement, Section 4(1)(b): sixty per cent of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor in Schedule IV, or Rs. 1,40,000, whichever is more.
  2. Permanent partial disablement, Section 4(1)(c): where the injury is in Part II, that percentage of the permanent total figure which the Schedule specifies; where it is not, such percentage as is proportionate to the loss of earning capacity as assessed by a qualified medical practitioner. Multiple injuries from one accident are aggregated, but not beyond the permanent total figure.
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  1. Temporary disablement, total or partial, Section 4(1)(d): a half-monthly payment of twenty-five per cent of monthly wages, payable on the sixteenth day and thereafter half-monthly, for the disablement or five years, whichever is shorter.
  2. Death, Section 4(1)(a): fifty per cent of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor, or Rs. 1,20,000, whichever is more, plus not less than Rs. 5,000 for funeral expenses under Section 4(4).
  3. Monthly wages are computed under Section 5 and capped by notification at Rs. 15,000; the relevant factor in Schedule IV falls as age rises.

D. The employer's defences.

The main rule leaves him none. Section 3(1) imposes liability without fault: negligence need not be proved against the employer, and the workman's own contributory negligence is not a defence. The Act was passed to displace the common law defences of common employment, contributory negligence and volenti non fit injuria.

The proviso to Section 3(1) gives him two, and only two:

  1. The three-day rule. No liability in respect of any injury which does not result in the total or partial disablement of the employee for a period exceeding three days.
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  1. The fault-based exceptions. No liability in respect of an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement caused by an accident directly attributable to: (a) the employee having been under the influence of drink or drugs; (b) his wilful disobedience to an order expressly given, or to a rule expressly framed, for the purpose of securing the safety of employees; or (c) his wilful removal or disregard of any safety guard or other device which he knew to have been provided for his safety.

Three limits are built into the fault-based defences and decide most cases. They never apply to death or permanent total disablement. They require wilfulness, meaning deliberate defiance, not carelessness, forgetfulness or haste. And they require an express order or rule made for safety, or a known safety device, and direct attribution of the accident to its breach.

Other statutory limits on liability.

  1. Section 3(4): no compensation for a disease except under Sections 3(2), (2A) and (3) on occupational diseases, unless directly attributable to a specific injury by accident.
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  1. Section 3(5): the workman must elect; no civil suit for damages lies where he has instituted a claim before the Commissioner or agreed with the employer.
  2. Section 10: notice of the accident as soon as practicable and a claim within two years, subject to the Commissioner's power to condone for sufficient cause.
  3. Definitional defences: that the claimant is not an "employee" within Section 2(1)(dd) and Schedule II, or that the injury did not arise out of and in the course of the employment.
  4. Section 17 prevents the defences being enlarged by agreement: any contract by which an employee relinquishes his right to compensation is null and void.
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Notes on These Answers

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2025-26 - ATKT 60/40 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

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