Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Labour Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2023-24 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Labour Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2023-24 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2023-24 examination.
This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2023-24 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2023-24 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer any Six not more than two or three sentence 12 Marks
Answer
The main objective, stated in the long title, is "to make provision for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes", and so to secure industrial peace and harmony by providing a legal machinery through which disputes between employers and workmen are resolved by conciliation, arbitration and adjudication instead of by strikes and lock-outs.
The subsidiary objects are to protect workmen against unfair treatment by regulating lay-off, retrenchment and closure and by giving relief against wrongful dismissal; to promote collective bargaining by making settlements binding under Section 18; and to prevent illegal strikes and lock-outs.
Answer
Legislative competence comes from the Seventh Schedule. Labour is principally in the Concurrent List (List III), so both Parliament and the State Legislatures may legislate:
The Union List (List I) carries Entry 55 (regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields) and Entry 61 (industrial disputes concerning Union employees).
Fundamental Rights underpin them: Article 14 (equality), Article 16 (equality of opportunity in public employment), Article 19(1)(c) (freedom to form associations or unions), Article 21 (life and personal liberty, read to include livelihood and dignity), Article 23 (prohibition of forced labour) and Article 24 (prohibition of child labour in factories and hazardous employment).
Directive Principles supply the policy: Article 38, Article 39(a), (d) and (e), Article 41 (right to work), Article 42 (just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief), Article 43 (living wage) and Article 43A (participation of workers in management).
Answer
Section 2(ra) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines "unfair labour practice" as any of the practices specified in the Fifth Schedule, and Section 25T prohibits them. Part II of the Fifth Schedule lists practices on the part of workmen and trade unions of workmen. Two are:
Others in Part II include coercing workmen in the exercise of their right to self-organisation, including picketing so as physically to debar non-striking workmen from entering the workplace; refusal by a recognised union to bargain collectively in good faith; and wilful damage to the employer's property.
Section 25U makes commission of an unfair labour practice punishable with imprisonment up to six months or fine up to one thousand rupees or both.
Answer
Section 5 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. Three functions of the Industrial Court are:
It also hears appeals under Section 42 against a conviction, acquittal or sentence by a Labour Court, within thirty days, and under Section 35 the law it declares binds Labour Courts.
Answer
A contract of service is a contract of employment: an agreement by which one person, the servant or employee, undertakes to serve another, the master or employer, and to work under his control and supervision, in return for wages. It creates the relationship of master and servant, and it is this relationship that brings the labour statutes into play.
It is distinguished from a contract for service, which is a contract with an independent contractor, who undertakes to produce a given result but is not subject to the control of the other party as to the manner in which he does the work.
The classic test is that laid down in Dharangadhara Chemical Works Ltd. v. State of Saurashtra (1957): the prima facie test is the existence of a right in the master to supervise and control the work done by the servant, not only in the directing of what work he is to do but also the manner in which he shall do it, and the question must be decided on the facts of each case having regard to the nature of the work.
Answer
In Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978) a Bench of seven Judges laid down the test for "industry" under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Where there is:
there is an industry.
Absence of a profit motive or gainful objective is irrelevant, and so is the character of the employer, whether private, government or a statutory body.
Answer
Section 25C of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: a workman other than a badli or casual workman, whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment and who has completed not less than one year of continuous service, is entitled, for all days during which he is laid off except weekly holidays, to compensation equal to fifty per cent of the total of the basic wages and dearness allowance that would have been payable to him had he not been so laid off.
The formula is therefore 50 per cent of (basic wages + dearness allowance) x number of days of lay-off, and the entitlement is limited to forty-five days in any period of twelve months.
Answer
The Industrial Court, constituted under Section 4 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971.
Under Section 11, a union with a membership of not less than thirty per cent of the total number of employees in an undertaking, sustained for the whole of the six calendar months immediately preceding the month of application, applies in the prescribed form to the Industrial Court. Under Section 12 the Court displays notice on the undertaking's notice board, invites objections, holds such enquiry as it thinks fit, and, if satisfied that the conditions in Sections 11 and 19 are met, grants recognition and issues a certificate.
Answer
Under Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 the accident must arise in the course of the employment, which is a question of time and place. The doctrine of notional extension holds that the employment may be extended notionally in both time and place, so that it is deemed to begin before the workman reaches his place of work and starts his duty, and to continue after he has left his post, while he is within an area or using a means of transport connected with and controlled by the employer.
In Saurashtra Salt Manufacturing Co. v. Bai Valu Raja (1958) the Supreme Court laid the doctrine down but held it inapplicable where workmen drowned crossing a public creek, since there the risk was one shared with the general public. In General Manager, B.E.S.T. Undertaking v. Mrs. Agnes (1964) it applied the doctrine where a driver was killed travelling home in the undertaking's own bus, which he was entitled to use as a term of his service.
Answer
Section 10 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.
Section 10(1): standing orders finally certified shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of six months from the date on which they, or the last modifications of them, came into operation, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen or a trade union or other representative body.
Section 10(2): thereafter, the employer or any workman or a trade union or other representative body may apply to the Certifying Officer to have the standing orders modified, accompanied by copies of the modifications proposed and, where by agreement, a certified copy of that agreement.
Section 10(3): the provisions applicable to original certification apply, so the proposal goes through notice, fifteen days for objections, a hearing, an order, and a right of appeal within thirty days under Section 6.
Short Notes Attempt any two 12 Marks
Answer
Application. Section 1(3): the Act applies to every industrial establishment employing one hundred or more workmen, or which employed that number on any day of the preceding twelve months, and to smaller establishments to which the appropriate Government extends it on not less than two months' notice.
The procedure.
Meanwhile. Section 12A: until the standing orders are certified, the model standing orders are deemed to be adopted.
Powers and enforcement. Section 11 gives the Certifying Officer and the appellate authority the powers of a civil court. Section 13 creates offences, prosecution requiring the previous sanction of the appropriate Government and trial by no court inferior to a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the second class. Section 13A sends questions of application or interpretation to the Labour Court.
Answer
Entitlement to lay-off compensation arises under Section 25C of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. A workman is not entitled in the following circumstances.
1. He is outside Section 25C itself.
2. The establishment is outside Section 25A. Sections 25C to 25E do not apply to an industrial establishment in which fewer than fifty workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding calendar month, nor to an establishment of a seasonal character, nor to one in which work is performed only intermittently. If a question arises whether an establishment is seasonal or intermittent, the decision of the appropriate Government is final.
3. The disqualifications in Section 25E. No compensation shall be paid to a workman who has been laid off:
4. It is not a lay-off at all. If the stoppage does not fall within Section 2(kkk), because it is not attributable to shortage of coal, power or raw materials, accumulation of stocks, break-down of machinery, natural calamity or a connected reason, then there is no lay-off. Such a stoppage is in substance a lock-out, and the workmen's claim is not for half wages but potentially for full wages if the lock-out is illegal or unjustified.
Answer
Constitution. Section 3(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: in the case of any industrial establishment in which one hundred or more workmen are employed, or have been employed on any day in the preceding twelve months, the appropriate Government may by general or special order require the employer to constitute a Works Committee.
Composition. It consists of representatives of employers and workmen engaged in the establishment, and the number of representatives of workmen shall not be less than the number of representatives of the employer. The representatives of the workmen shall be chosen in the prescribed manner from among the workmen engaged in the establishment and in consultation with their trade union, if any, registered under the Trade Unions Act, 1926.
Duties. Section 3(2): it shall be the duty of the Works Committee to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and workmen and, to that end, to comment upon matters of their common interest or concern and endeavour to compose any material difference of opinion in respect of such matters.
Matters it deals with in practice: conditions of work, ventilation, lighting and sanitation; safety and accident prevention; canteen, drinking water and welfare amenities; the administration of welfare funds; educational and recreational facilities; and the ventilation of small grievances before they harden.
What it cannot do. It is bipartite and advisory. It has no power to decide a dispute and no power to make a binding settlement. The Supreme Court has held that its function is to smooth away friction, and that it cannot trespass upon matters that belong to the recognised union or to the conciliation and adjudication machinery, nor supersede a registered union in collective bargaining.
Maharashtra overlay. Section 20(2)(a) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 provides that where there is a recognised union, that union alone has the right to appoint its nominees to represent workmen on a Works Committee constituted under Section 3, and Schedule I to that Act amends Section 3 accordingly.
Answer
Collective bargaining is the process by which an employer or association of employers and one or more representative organisations of workers negotiate the terms and conditions of employment and reach an agreement binding both for a stated period. The term was coined by Sidney and Beatrice Webb in Industrial Democracy (1897). In India its product is given legal force by Section 18 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Advantages.
Disadvantages.
Attempt any two 12 Marks
Answer
Yes. These are, almost word for word, the facts of Indian News Chronicle Ltd. v. Mrs. Lazarus (AIR 1951 Punjab 102). An electrician whose duties required him to go frequently from a heating room to a cooling plant contracted pneumonia from the repeated exposure to extreme changes of temperature and died. It was held that the death was caused by personal injury by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, and compensation was payable.
The reasoning has four steps and each should be given.
Distinguish the case of ordinary illness. If a workman simply falls ill at work from a cause unconnected with the work, the death does not arise out of the employment. The distinguishing feature here is that the employment itself created the exposure.
A note on occupational disease. The claim does not need Section 3(2) and Schedule III. Pneumonia so contracted is not a scheduled occupational disease; it is treated as an injury by accident under Section 3(1) because it is traceable to the specific conditions of this employment.
The rule. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: if personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation. Liability is strict, without proof of negligence.
The exceptions. The proviso excludes liability (i) where the disablement does not exceed three days; and (ii) in respect of an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement, where the accident is directly attributable to the employee being under the influence of drink or drugs, to his wilful disobedience of a rule or order expressly framed for safety, or to his wilful removal or disregard of a safety guard or device. Neither exception can apply here, because Suresh died.
The amount. Section 4(1)(a), death: fifty per cent of the monthly wages of the deceased multiplied by the relevant factor in Schedule IV, or Rs. 1,20,000, whichever is more; monthly wages are capped by notification at Rs. 15,000 per month. Section 4(4): the employer must in addition deposit not less than Rs. 5,000 for funeral expenses, payable to the eldest surviving dependant.
To whom. Section 8(1): compensation for death must be deposited with the Commissioner, and no payment made directly by the employer to a dependant counts as compensation. Section 8(4): the Commissioner apportions the amount among the dependants as he thinks fit. Dependants are defined in Section 2(1)(d), the first class being a widow, minor legitimate son, unmarried legitimate daughter and widowed mother.
Time and default. Section 4A: compensation shall be paid as soon as it falls due; on default the Commissioner may order simple interest at twelve per cent per annum and, where the default is without justification, a penalty of up to fifty per cent of the compensation.
Procedure. Section 10: notice of the accident as soon as practicable, and a claim within two years; in the case of a contracted disease the accident is deemed to have occurred on the first of the days of continuous absence caused by the disablement. Section 12 makes a principal liable where a contractor's employee is injured in work that is part of the principal's trade. Section 17 makes void any agreement relinquishing the right to compensation.
Answer
Yes. Section 49 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 makes it an offence for any person who wilfully:
Note that the section speaks of "any person", so the Plant head is personally liable; it is not an offence of the company alone.
Two ingredients must be established. First, that the Investigating Officer was entitled to enter that place. His entitlement comes from Section 37, which confers powers on Investigating Officers, read with Section 9, under which he verifies union membership and investigates unfair labour practice complaints, and with Section 28(4), which expressly permits him, when investigating a complaint, to visit the undertaking where the practice alleged is said to have occurred and to make such enquiries as he considers necessary. Second, that the refusal was wilful, that is deliberate and with knowledge of who he was. A refusal by a gatekeeper who did not know him, or a bona fide request to wait, would not be wilful.
Section 49 provides that such a person shall, on conviction, be punished with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees.
There is no imprisonment prescribed for this offence, and no minimum fine.
The relevant procedural provisions.
Answer
Yes, on the facts as stated, subject to two questions of fact.
Consequence. Because no notice was given, Section 25F(a) was breached, and there is nothing to suggest compliance with Section 25F(b) or (c) either. The conditions in Section 25F are conditions precedent and are mandatory; retrenchment in breach of them is void ab initio. The workmen are entitled to reinstatement with continuity of service, and to such back wages as the Labour Court thinks fit, the workman being required to plead that he was not gainfully employed in the interval.
If the establishment employs one hundred or more workmen, Section 25N applies and the position is worse for the employer: three months' notice and the prior permission of the appropriate Government were required.
There are no prescribed grounds. This is the point of the question. Section 2(oo) permits termination "for any reason whatsoever", and the Act nowhere requires the employer to justify the reason. What it prescribes instead are conditions.
Section 25F, conditions precedent for a workman in continuous service for not less than one year:
Section 25G: last come, first go. Where a workman of a particular category is to be retrenched, the employer shall ordinarily retrench the workman who was the last person employed in that category, unless for reasons to be recorded he retrenches another.
Section 25H: re-employment. Where the employer proposes to take persons into employment after a retrenchment, he must give the retrenched workmen an opportunity to offer themselves, and they have preference over other persons.
Section 25N (establishments with one hundred or more workmen): three months' notice and the prior permission of the appropriate Government, applied for with reasons, decided after hearing the parties.
The four exclusions from Section 2(oo) are, in effect, the only "grounds" on which a termination escapes the chapter: voluntary retirement, superannuation, non-renewal or expiry of a contract, and continued ill-health.
Answer
Yes.
(i) without giving them notice of lock-out as provided in that section within six weeks before locking out; (ii) within fourteen days of giving such notice; (iii) before the expiry of the date of lock-out specified in any such notice; or (iv) during the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a conciliation officer and seven days after the conclusion of such proceedings.
1. Penalty on the employer. Section 26(2): any employer who commences, continues or otherwise acts in furtherance of a lock-out which is illegal is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
2. Penalty for instigation and financial aid. Section 27: any person who instigates or incites others to take part in, or otherwise acts in furtherance of, an illegal lock-out is punishable with imprisonment up to six months or fine up to one thousand rupees or both. Section 28, read with Section 25, punishes the knowing expenditure or application of money in direct furtherance or support of an illegal lock-out in the same terms.
3. Wages to the workmen. There is no statutory provision, and the position rests on case law: where a lock-out is illegal or unjustified, the workmen are ordinarily entitled to full wages for the period of the lock-out. The claim is made by raising an industrial dispute, and may be recovered under Section 33C once the amount is determined.
4. Protection of the workmen's own action. Section 24(3): a strike declared in consequence of an illegal lock-out is not illegal. So the workmen may respond without themselves committing an offence.
5. Reference and prohibition. Section 10(3): where a dispute has been referred, the appropriate Government may by order prohibit the continuance of the lock-out, and continuance in breach of such an order makes it illegal under Section 24(1)(ii).
6. In Maharashtra, an unfair labour practice. A lock-out declared to defeat the workmen's right to organise falls within Schedule II of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971, and the general practices in Schedule IV may also be attracted. A complaint lies under Section 28 within ninety days, and the Industrial Court may under Section 30 order the employer to cease and desist, order affirmative action including payment of wages, and grant interim relief. Section 24(2) of that Act separately defines an illegal lock-out, and Section 25 allows a reference to the Labour Court for a declaration that the lock-out is illegal.
Attempt any two 24 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the full text of Section 2(s); each of the four exclusions; the tests the courts apply; the case law in sequence; the position of specific categories; and the change made by the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.
The definition. Section 2(s) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: "workman" means any person, including an apprentice, employed in any industry to do any manual, unskilled, skilled, technical, operational, clerical or supervisory work for hire or reward, whether the terms of employment be express or implied, and for the purposes of any proceeding under the Act in relation to an industrial dispute, includes any such person who has been dismissed, discharged or retrenched in connection with, or as a consequence of, that dispute, or whose dismissal, discharge or retrenchment has led to that dispute.
Who is not a workman. The definition excludes any such person:
The two-stage test. A person is a workman only if (i) he is employed to do work of one of the seven enumerated kinds, and (ii) he does not fall within one of the four exclusions.
The case law.
Particular categories.
Under the new law. Section 2(zr) of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 defines "worker" in substantially the same terms, with two changes worth knowing: it expressly includes working journalists and sales promotion employees, reversing the effect of H.R. Adyanthaya for that category, and it raises the supervisory wage ceiling to eighteen thousand rupees per month or such higher amount as may be notified.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 3(1) and its four ingredients; the meaning of accident and personal injury; each phrase separately; notional extension with contrasting cases; the risk theories with cases; unexplained accidents; occupational disease; and the proviso.
The provision. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "If personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation." Liability is strict; negligence need not be proved on either side.
Four ingredients: personal injury; caused by accident; arising out of the employment; and in the course of the employment. The last two are joined by "and", so both must be established, and they test different things.
"Accident" means an unlooked-for mishap or untoward event which is not expected or designed, judged from the standpoint of the workman who suffers it. It covers a fall, an assault, a snake bite, a heart attack brought on by strain, and, as Indian News Chronicle Ltd. v. Mrs. Lazarus (1951) shows, a disease contracted through the conditions of the work.
"Personal injury" is not limited to visible physical harm. It includes physiological injury produced by strain or nervous shock, and it includes death.
"In the course of employment": the time and place test. The injury must occur while the workman is doing what a man so employed might reasonably do, within the period of employment, at a place where he might reasonably be. It extends to reasonable incidents of work: meals taken on the premises, rest intervals, and movement about the workplace.
"Arising out of employment": the causation test. There must be a causal connection between the accident and the employment, in the sense that the employment exposed the workman to the risk which injured him. Three propositions follow:
Notional extension, with the leading cases.
The theory of increased risk, with cases.
Unexplained accidents. Mackinnon Mackenzie and Co. v. Ibrahim Mahommad Issak (1970). A seaman disappeared at sea and the cause was unknown. The Supreme Court held that where the cause is unknown, the claimant need only establish circumstances from which a reasonable inference may be drawn that the accident arose out of the employment; probability, not certainty, is the standard, since the employment had placed him on the high seas.
Heart attacks and natural causes. A death from disease at work is compensable only if the employment contributed to it by strain, stress or exertion beyond the ordinary. If the condition would have struck at that moment wherever the man had been, it does not arise out of the employment.
Occupational disease. Section 3(2) deems the contracting of a disease specified in Schedule III, in an employment specified against it and after the required period of continuous service, to be an injury by accident arising out of and in the course of employment, unless the contrary is proved. Schedule III has Part A (no minimum period), Part B (six months) and Part C (such period as the Central Government specifies).
The proviso to Section 3(1). No compensation where (a) the disablement does not exceed three days; or (b) in respect of an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement, where the accident is directly attributable to the workman being under the influence of drink or drugs, to his wilful disobedience of an order or rule expressly framed for safety, or to his wilful removal or disregard of a safety guard or device.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the application of Chapter III; the qualification for recognition; the procedure and the competing-union rule; the two mandatory refusals; the obligations in Section 19; cancellation and suspension; recognition of another union; re-recognition; and what recognition is worth.
Application. Section 10. Chapter III applies to every undertaking wherein fifty or more employees are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months. The State Government may, after not less than sixty days' notice, apply the Chapter to undertakings employing fewer. If the number falls below fifty continuously for one year, the Chapter ceases to apply.
Application for recognition. Section 11. A union which has, for the whole of the period of six calendar months immediately preceding the calendar month in which it applies, a membership of not less than thirty per cent of the total number of employees employed in the undertaking, may apply in the prescribed form to the Industrial Court to be registered as a recognised union. The application is to be disposed of as far as possible within three months where the undertaking is in one local area, and within four months otherwise.
Grant of recognition. Section 12.
Obligations. Section 19. A recognised union must hold elections of its office bearers as required by its constitution, allow all members to take part, hold a general meeting at least once a year to consider its accounts and the report of its working, and allow an auditor appointed by the State Government to audit its accounts at least once each financial year.
Cancellation and suspension of rights. Section 13(1). The Industrial Court shall cancel the recognition of a union, after notice to show cause and an inquiry, if satisfied:
The Court may, instead of cancelling recognition, suspend the rights of the recognised union under Sections 20 and 21 for such period as it thinks fit. Section 16 provides that cancellation does not relieve the union or its members of liability incurred before it, and Section 17 requires publication of the order.
Recognition of another union. Section 14. Where a union applies to be recognised in place of an existing recognised union on the ground that it has the largest membership, the Industrial Court shall, if a period of two years has elapsed since the registration of the recognised union, call upon that union to show cause within thirty days. After notice on the notice board and such enquiry as it thinks fit, if the applicant satisfies Section 11 and its membership was, during the whole of the six calendar months immediately preceding, larger than that of the recognised union, the Court recognises it in place of the recognised union. No application will be entertained unless one year has elapsed since the disposal of that union's previous application.
Re-recognition. Section 15. A union whose recognition has been cancelled may apply for re-recognition, subject to the period prescribed by that section and on showing that the ground of cancellation has ceased to exist and that it again satisfies Section 11.
Section 18 permits recognition for more than one undertaking where a group of concerns is notified to be one undertaking.
What recognition is worth. Sections 20 and 21 give the recognised union access to the premises, a notice board, the right to collect subscriptions, to discuss grievances with the employer, to inspect, to appear in domestic inquiries, the sole right to nominate workmen to the Works Committee, and the rule that no employee may be represented in Industrial Disputes Act proceedings except through it, save in dismissal and similar matters. Section 22 leaves an unrecognised union only the right to take up an individual member's discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension and to appear for him in a domestic inquiry.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and its ingredients; the distinction from lay-off and closure; when a lock-out is legal; the four restrictions in Section 22 for public utilities; the four in Section 23 generally; Section 24 on illegality and its exceptions; the consequences; the position on wages; and the Maharashtra provisions.
Definition. Section 2(l) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: "lock-out" means the temporary closing of a place of employment, or the suspension of work, or the refusal by an employer to continue to employ any number of persons employed by him.
Ingredients.
Distinguish from lay-off and closure.
When a lock-out is legal. A lock-out is legal when it is not prohibited by Sections 22 and 23 and is not continued in breach of an order under Section 10(3) or 10A(4A). In practice this means:
When it is illegal. Section 24(1): a lock-out is illegal if it is (i) commenced or declared in contravention of Section 22 or Section 23, or (ii) continued in contravention of an order made under Section 10(3) or Section 10A(4A).
Section 24(2): where a lock-out was already in existence at the time a dispute was referred, its continuance is not illegal, provided it was not illegal at its commencement and was not prohibited by such an order.
Section 24(3): a lock-out declared in consequence of an illegal strike is not illegal.
Consequences of an illegal lock-out.
Legal but unjustified. A lock-out may be legal and yet unjustified, and the distinction matters for wages. Legality is tested by Sections 22, 23 and 24; justification is tested by whether, on the merits, the employer was warranted in resorting to a lock-out at all, having regard to the conduct of the parties. A legal but unjustified lock-out will ordinarily still attract an award of wages for the period.
No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.
Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.
Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.
The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.
Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license
This volume prints the 2023-24 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
10 August 2026.
Also from munotes.in
Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.