munotes®

BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Labour Laws 2022-23 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Labour Laws

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2022-23 Examination

munotes.in

Mumbai

munotes.in

First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.

This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.

munotes.in ii
munotes.in iii
munotes.in iv

The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 2 hours  ·  Total marks 60  ·  22 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • N.B: 1. ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY. 2. MARKS ARE INDICATED AGAINST EACH QUESTION

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

munotes.in v

SECTION I

Answer any six of the following in not more than two sentences 12 Marks

munotes.in 1

1.What are the objective of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?[2]

Answer

The long title describes it as an Act "to make provision for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes, and for certain other purposes". Its objects are:

  1. to secure industrial peace by providing machinery for the investigation and settlement of disputes, through Works Committees, conciliation officers, Boards of Conciliation, Courts of Inquiry, Labour Courts, Tribunals and National Tribunals;
  2. to protect workmen against unfair treatment, by regulating lay-off, retrenchment, transfer and closure, and by giving relief against wrongful dismissal;
  3. to promote collective bargaining, by making settlements binding under Section 18; and
  4. to prevent illegal strikes and lock-outs, and to provide for compensation and for the conditions of service to remain unchanged while a dispute is pending.
munotes.in 2

2.What is " total disablement" under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923?[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(l): "total disablement" means such disablement, whether of a temporary or permanent nature, as incapacitates an employee for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident resulting in such disablement.

The proviso deems permanent total disablement to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries specified in Part II where the aggregate percentage of loss of earning capacity amounts to one hundred per cent or more.

munotes.in 3

3.Who grants recognition to a trade union under MRTU & PULP , 1971?[2]

Answer

The Industrial Court, under Sections 11 and 12 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971.

A union which has, for the whole of the six calendar months immediately preceding the month of application, a membership of not less than thirty per cent of the total number of employees in the undertaking, applies in the prescribed form to the Industrial Court under Section 11. Under Section 12 the Court displays notice on the undertaking's notice board, hears objections, holds such enquiry as it thinks fit, and if satisfied that Sections 11 and 19 are complied with, grants recognition and issues a certificate.

munotes.in 4

4.Define "lay-off" under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 2(kkk): "lay-off" means the failure, refusal or inability of an employer, on account of shortage of coal, power or raw materials, the accumulation of stocks, the break-down of machinery, natural calamity or any other connected reason, to give employment to a workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of his industrial establishment and who has not been retrenched.

By the Explanation, a workman whose name is on the muster rolls, who presents himself for work at the appointed time and is not given employment within two hours, is deemed to have been laid off for that day.

munotes.in 5

5.What are "Model Standing Orders" under the I.E.(S.O.) Act, 1946?[2]

Answer

Section 2(f) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946: "model standing orders" means the standing orders prescribed by the appropriate Government under the Act, framed by rules made under Section 15.

They serve two purposes:

  1. under Section 3(2), the employer's draft must be, so far as is practicable, in conformity with them; and
  2. under Section 12A, from the date the Act becomes applicable to an establishment until its own standing orders are certified, the model standing orders are deemed to be adopted in that establishment.
munotes.in 6

6.Who files a failure report to the appropriate Government under the Industrial Disputes Act,1947?[2]

Answer

The conciliation officer, under Section 12(4) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

If no settlement is arrived at, the conciliation officer shall, as soon as practicable after the close of the investigation, send to the appropriate Government a full report setting out the steps taken by him to ascertain the facts and circumstances of the dispute and to bring about a settlement, together with a full statement of the facts and circumstances and the reasons on account of which, in his opinion, a settlement could not be arrived at.

Section 12(6) requires the report to be submitted within fourteen days of the commencement of the conciliation proceedings, or within such shorter period as the appropriate Government may fix, though the time may be extended by written agreement of the parties.

munotes.in 7

7.Mention two functions of the investigating officer under the MRTU & PULP Act, 1971[2]

Answer

Section 9 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. The Investigating Officer is under the control of the Industrial Court. Two of his functions are:

  1. to assist the Industrial Court in matters of verification of membership of unions, and to assist the Industrial and Labour Courts in investigating into complaints relating to unfair labour practices; and
  2. to report to the Industrial Court or the Labour Court the existence of any unfair labour practice in any industry or undertaking, with the names and addresses of the persons said to be engaged in it and any other information he thinks fit.

Under Section 28(4), when investigating a complaint he may visit the undertaking, make such enquiries as he considers necessary, and make efforts to promote a settlement.

munotes.in 8

8.What are the objective of I.E.(S.O.)Act, 1946?[2]

Answer

The preamble states the object: to require employers in industrial establishments formally to define conditions of employment under them, and, as the courts have added, to make those conditions known to the workmen employed by them.

More fully, the objects are:

  1. to bring about uniformity and certainty in the terms and conditions of employment in an industrial establishment;
  2. to reduce industrial disputes arising from unclear or arbitrary conditions of service;
  3. to protect workmen against arbitrary and unilateral alteration of their conditions of service; and
  4. to secure that those conditions are fair and reasonable, since Section 4 requires the Certifying Officer to adjudicate upon their fairness or reasonableness.
munotes.in 9

9.What are Public Utility Services under the ID Act, 1947?[2]

Answer

Section 2(n) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. "Public utility service" means:

  1. any railway service or any transport service for the carriage of passengers or goods by air;
  2. any service in, or in connection with the working of, any major port or dock;
  3. any section of an industrial establishment on the working of which the safety of the establishment or the workmen employed therein depends;
  4. any postal, telegraph or telephone service;
  5. any industry which supplies power, light or water to the public;
  6. any system of public conservancy or sanitation;
  7. any industry specified in the First Schedule which the appropriate Government may, by notification, declare to be a public utility service for a period not exceeding six months at a time, where public emergency or public interest so requires.
munotes.in 10

The First Schedule includes transport other than railways, banking, cement, coal, cotton textiles, foodstuffs, iron and steel, defence establishments, service in hospitals and dispensaries, and fire brigade service.

munotes.in 11

10.Who represents the workman in a case of unfair labour practice against the employer?[2]

Answer

Under the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 the answer depends on which unfair labour practice is alleged.

  1. For the practices in items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV, Section 21 provides that no employee shall be allowed to appear or act or be represented except through the recognised union, with a proviso that where there is no recognised union, the employee may appear or act himself.
  2. For all other unfair labour practices, including Item 1 of Schedule IV (discharge and dismissal by victimisation), the employee may appear himself, or through a union. Under Section 22, an unrecognised union has the right to appear on behalf of any of its members in a domestic or departmental inquiry and to take up his discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension with the employer.
  3. Under Section 28(1) a complaint may be filed by any union, any employee, any employer or any Investigating Officer, so the union itself may be the complainant.
munotes.in 12

SECTION II

Write Short Notes on any two of the following 12 Marks

munotes.in 13

11."Occupational Diseases "under Employees Compensation Act,1923.[6]

Answer

The problem the provision solves. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 requires an accident, that is an identifiable untoward event. An occupational disease develops gradually, over months or years of exposure, and could never satisfy that requirement. Section 3(2) therefore creates a deeming provision.

Section 3(2). Where an employee employed in any employment specified in Schedule III contracts a disease specified against that employment as an occupational disease peculiar to that employment, the contracting of the disease shall be deemed to be an injury by accident arising out of and in the course of the employment, unless the contrary is proved, and compensation is payable accordingly.

Schedule III has three parts.

  1. Part A. No minimum period of employment is required. It covers infectious and parasitic diseases contracted in an occupation where there is a particular risk of contamination, such as work in hospitals or with animals, and poisoning by lead, mercury, phosphorus, benzene, arsenic and their compounds.
munotes.in 14
  1. Part B. Continuous service of not less than six months in the specified employment is required. It covers diseases caused by chrome, nitro compounds and carbon disulphide; skin cancer caused by tar, pitch, bitumen or mineral oil; hearing impairment caused by noise; and occupational asthma.
  2. Part C. Such continuous period as the Central Government may specify for each disease. It covers pneumoconiosis caused by sclerogenic mineral dust, including silicosis and asbestosis; bagassosis; byssinosis; and asbestos-induced cancer.

Section 3(2A): if an employee who has, after ceasing to be employed, contracted a disease specified in Part C, and the disease arose out of the employment, it shall be deemed to be an injury by accident within the meaning of the section.

Section 3(3) empowers the Central Government in respect of Part C, and the State Government in respect of Parts A and B, to add diseases and employments to the Schedule by notification.

Section 3(4) makes clear that except as provided by sub-sections (2), (2A) and (3), no compensation is payable for a disease unless it is directly attributable to a specific injury by accident arising out of and in the course of the employment.

munotes.in 15

12.Amendment of certified standing order under I.E.(S.O.)Act, 1946.[6]

Answer

The provision. Section 10 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, headed "duration and modification of standing orders".

1. The six-month bar. Section 10(1). Standing orders finally certified under the Act shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of six months from the date on which the standing orders, or the last modifications of them, came into operation, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen, or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen.

2. Who may apply and how. Section 10(2). Subject to sub-section (1), an employer or any workman, or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen, may apply to the Certifying Officer to have the standing orders modified. The application shall be accompanied by copies of the modifications proposed and, where the modifications are proposed to be made by agreement, by a certified copy of that agreement.

munotes.in 16

3. The procedure. Section 10(3). The foregoing provisions of the Act apply to such an application as they apply to the certification of the first standing orders. That imports the whole of the certification machinery:

  1. the Certifying Officer forwards the proposal to the trade union, or where there is none, to the workmen, and requires objections within fifteen days (Section 5(1));
  2. he gives the parties an opportunity of being heard and decides what modification or addition is necessary, by order in writing (Section 5(2));
  3. he certifies and within seven days sends authenticated copies to both sides (Section 5(3));
  4. he must consider fairness and reasonableness under Section 4; and
  5. an appeal lies to the appellate authority within thirty days under Section 6, whose decision is final, after which the Certifying Officer amends the register under Section 8.

4. Date of operation. Section 7: the modification operates on the expiry of thirty days from the date copies were sent, or seven days from the date copies of the appellate order were sent.

munotes.in 17

13.Notice of Change under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947[6]

Answer

Section 9A. No employer who proposes to effect any change in the conditions of service applicable to any workman in respect of any matter specified in the Fourth Schedule shall effect such change:

  1. without giving to the workmen likely to be affected by the change notice in the prescribed manner of the nature of the change proposed to be effected; or
  2. within twenty-one days of giving such notice.

The Fourth Schedule lists the conditions of service for change of which notice is to be given:

  1. wages, including the period and mode of payment;
  2. contribution paid, or payable, by the employer to any provident fund or pension fund or for the benefit of the workmen under any law;
  3. compensatory and other allowances;
  4. hours of work and rest intervals;
  5. leave with wages and holidays;
  6. starting, alteration or discontinuance of shift working otherwise than in accordance with standing orders;
munotes.in 18
  1. classification by grades;
  2. withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege or change in usage;
  3. introduction of new rules of discipline, or alteration of existing rules, except in so far as they are provided in standing orders;
  4. rationalisation, standardisation or improvement of plant or technique which is likely to lead to retrenchment of workmen;
  5. any increase or reduction, other than casual, in the number of persons employed in any department or shift, not occasioned by circumstances over which the employer has no control.

Exceptions. Section 9A does not apply where the change is effected in pursuance of any settlement or award, or where the workmen are persons to whom specified government service rules apply. Section 9B empowers the appropriate Government, if the application of Section 9A would affect employers prejudicially and it is necessary in the public interest or in an emergency, to exempt any class of industrial establishments by notification, for a period not exceeding one year at a time.

munotes.in 19

Consequence of breach. A change effected in contravention of Section 9A is illegal and inoperative; the workmen are entitled to be treated as though the previous conditions continued, and may raise an industrial dispute. Contravention is also an offence under Section 31(2).

munotes.in 20

14.Rights and Duties of a recognised trade union under MRTU & PULP, 1971.[6]

Answer

Duties. Section 19 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. A recognised union shall:

  1. hold elections of its office bearers as required by its constitution or rules;
  2. allow all its members to take part in such elections;
  3. hold a general meeting at least once in each year for consideration of its accounts, the report of its working, and other matters; and
  4. allow an auditor appointed by the State Government to audit its accounts at least once in each financial year.

Failure to observe any of these is a ground for cancellation of recognition under Section 13(1)(iii).

To these statutory duties must be added the duty not to commit any unfair labour practice in Schedule III, notably advising or instigating an illegal strike (Item 1), coercing employees (Item 2), refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer (Item 3), coercive activities against certification (Item 4), and go slow, squatting or gherao (Item 5).

munotes.in 21

Rights. Section 20(1). Authorised officers, office staff and members have the right:

  1. to collect subscriptions on the premises where wages are paid;
  2. to put up a notice board on the premises and affix notices;
  3. for the prevention or settlement of an industrial dispute, to hold discussions on the premises with member employees without interfering with the working of the undertaking, to meet and discuss grievances with the employer, and to inspect any place where an employee is employed;
  4. to appear on behalf of an employee in any domestic or departmental inquiry.

Section 20(2) confers the two exclusive rights: the recognised union alone appoints the workmen's nominees to the Works Committee under Section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act; and no employee may appear or be represented in a proceeding under that Act except through the recognised union, except in a proceeding about dismissal, discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension.

munotes.in 22

Section 21 extends that exclusivity to unfair labour practice proceedings under items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV. Section 23 entitles up to two authorised members who appear on the union's behalf to be paid as if on duty.

munotes.in 23

SECTION III

Answer any two of the following 12 Marks

munotes.in 24

15.Mr X was a driver working for a State Transport Corporation his eyesight became poor due to diabetes. The State Transport Corporation terminates his services without retrenchment compensation.[6]

  • (a) What is retrenchment compensation?
  • (b) Is the employer bound to pay retrenchment compensation to the terminated driver? Give reasons for your answer.

Answer

(a) What is retrenchment compensation?

Retrenchment compensation is the payment an employer must make under Section 25F(b) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 as a condition precedent to retrenching a workman who has been in continuous service for not less than one year.

It is compensation equivalent to fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service, or any part thereof in excess of six months, and it must be paid at the time of retrenchment.

munotes.in 25

It is one of three conditions, the others being one month's notice in writing indicating the reasons for retrenchment, or wages in lieu, under Section 25F(a), and notice to the appropriate Government under Section 25F(c). In an establishment covered by Chapter VB the notice is three months and the prior permission of the appropriate Government is also required under Section 25N.

Illustration. A workman with six years and eight months' service and average pay of Rs. 24,000 per month. The part year exceeds six months and counts as a completed year, so seven years. Fifteen days' average pay is Rs. 12,000. Compensation is 7 x Rs. 12,000 = Rs. 84,000, plus one month's notice or Rs. 24,000 in lieu.

(b) Is the employer bound to pay retrenchment compensation to the terminated driver? Give reasons for your answer.

On the facts as stated, no, provided the corporation proves the ground it asserts, but it is not free to turn him out with nothing.

munotes.in 26
  1. Section 2(oo)(c) excludes from the definition of retrenchment the termination of the service of a workman on the ground of continued ill-health. If the driver's services have been terminated because his eyesight has permanently deteriorated as a result of diabetes, that termination is not retrenchment, and Section 25F does not apply to it at all.
  2. That is precisely the holding in Anand Bihari v. Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation (1991). Drivers of a State transport corporation whose vision had become defective or sub-normal were removed. The Supreme Court held that "continued ill-health" includes defective or sub-normal eyesight which is bound to interfere with normal working as a driver, so the termination fell within Section 2(oo)(c), was not retrenchment, and Section 25F was not attracted.
munotes.in 27
  1. But the Court did not stop there. It held the terminations unjustified and inequitable, and directed that the affected employees be given retirement benefits, and either alternative employment in a post they were fit to hold or, where no vacancy existed, compensation, with liberty to be offered a job later on returning the compensation.
  2. The burden is on the employer, and it must be discharged by medical evidence showing that the condition is continued, that is lasting and not correctable, and that it genuinely unfits him for a driver's work. Eyesight is central to driving, so on these facts that is readily shown. If the corporation cannot prove it, the termination is retrenchment, Section 25F was not complied with, the retrenchment is void, and he is entitled to reinstatement with continuity of service.

Conclusion. The corporation is not bound to pay retrenchment compensation under Section 25F, because this is not retrenchment. It is bound, on the authority of Anand Bihari, to give him his retirement and terminal benefits and either alternative employment or compensation.

munotes.in 28

16.Mr. Z was an active member of a trade union. The employer transfers him repeatedly to different locations. Mr. X wants to file a case against such repeated transfers.[6]

  • (a) What remedy is available to the employee under MRTU & PULP, 1971?
  • (b) Mention two protections that are provided to office bearers of trade unions.

Answer

(a) What remedy is available to the employee under MRTU & PULP, 1971?

A complaint of unfair labour practice under Section 28 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971.

  1. The practice. Repeated transfers of an active union member is the unfair labour practice in Item 3 of Schedule IV: "to transfer an employee mala fide from one place to another, under the guise of following management policy". It also falls within Schedule II, which prohibits an employer from discriminating in regard to hire, tenure of employment or any term or condition of employment to encourage or discourage membership of a trade union, and from discriminating against an employee for union activity.
munotes.in 29
  1. Who may complain. Under Section 28(1), any union, employee, employer or Investigating Officer. Mr. Z may complain himself, or his union may complain for him.
  2. Limitation. Within ninety days of the occurrence of the unfair labour practice, with power in the Court to condone delay for good and sufficient reasons. Where transfers are repeated, each transfer is a fresh occurrence and starts its own period.
  3. Forum. Item 3 of Schedule IV is not Item 1, so the complaint lies to the Industrial Court under Section 5, not to the Labour Court.
  4. Investigation. The Court may direct the Investigating Officer to investigate under Section 28(3), and he may visit the undertaking, make enquiries and attempt a settlement.
  5. Relief. Section 30 empowers the Court to declare the practice, direct the employer to cease and desist, take affirmative action including reinstatement in the former post with or without back wages, and grant interim relief pending the decision. The order is final and cannot be questioned in any civil or criminal court.
munotes.in 30

What he must prove is mala fides: that the transfers, though within the employer's power on paper, were made not for management reasons but because of his union activity. Evidence of the pattern, its timing against union events, the absence of any operational reason, and the treatment of comparable employees is what carries the case.

(b) Mention two protections that are provided to office bearers of trade unions.

  1. Protected workmen under Section 33 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. A workman who is a member of the executive or an office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment, and is recognised as a protected workman in accordance with the rules, cannot, during the pendency of any conciliation or adjudication proceeding, have his conditions of service altered to his prejudice, or be discharged, dismissed or otherwise punished, save with the express permission in writing of the authority before which the proceeding is pending. Under Section 33(4) the number of protected workmen is one per cent of the total workmen, subject to a minimum of five and a maximum of one hundred.
munotes.in 31
  1. Immunity under the Trade Unions Act, 1926. Section 17 gives office bearers and members of a registered trade union immunity from punishment for criminal conspiracy under Section 120B(2) of the Indian Penal Code in respect of agreements made to further the objects of the union set out in Section 15. Section 18 gives immunity from civil suit in respect of any act done in contemplation or furtherance of a trade dispute on the ground only that it induces some other person to break a contract of employment or interferes with trade, business or employment.

Two further protections: Section 21A and Section 22 of the Trade Unions Act on disqualification and the proportion of office bearers connected with the industry; and the unfair labour practice protections in Schedules II and IV of the MRTU and PULP Act, which cover discharge, dismissal, victimisation and mala fide transfer.

munotes.in 32

17.Mr. Z was employed in a factory making automobile parts. Safety gear to protect the eyes was provided by the factory owner. During welding work, Mr. Z injured his eyes and lost sight in one eye despite wearing protective gear. On investigation, it was found that the safety gear was defective.[6]

  • (a) What is the nature of the injury suffered by the employee?
  • (b) Will the employee get compensation under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923? Give Reasons for your answer.

Answer

(a) What is the nature of the injury suffered by the employee?

Permanent partial disablement, under Section 2(1)(g) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923.

  1. The disablement is permanent: sight in one eye is lost and will not return.
munotes.in 33
  1. It is partial and not total, because it does not incapacitate him for all the work he was capable of performing at the time of the accident. Total disablement under Section 2(1)(l) is deemed only from an injury in Part I of Schedule I, or a combination of Part II injuries aggregating one hundred per cent.
  2. Loss of one eye without complications, the other being normal, is an injury specified in Part II of Schedule I, which is deemed to result in permanent partial disablement, and the Schedule fixes the loss of earning capacity at forty per cent.

Note the qualification: if his other eye was already impaired, the combination of injuries could reach one hundred per cent and the disablement would then be permanent total.

(b) Will the employee get compensation under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923? Give Reasons for your answer.

Yes, and this is a straightforward case for the employee.

  1. The claim is complete under Section 3(1). There is a personal injury, caused by an accident, in the course of his employment, at his work station during welding, and arising out of it, since eye injury is the characteristic risk of welding. Liability is without fault.
munotes.in 34
  1. None of the exceptions in the proviso applies. The three fault-based exceptions require the accident to be directly attributable to the employee being under the influence of drink or drugs, to his wilful disobedience of a safety rule, or to his wilful removal or disregard of a safety guard or device. Mr. Z wore the protective gear. Far from disregarding a safety device, he used the one he was given.
  2. The three-day bar does not apply, since loss of sight in an eye is plainly a disablement lasting more than three days.
  3. That the gear was defective helps the employee, not the employer. Liability under this Act does not depend on the employer's negligence, so the defect is not needed to establish the claim; but it disposes conclusively of any suggestion that the workman was at fault, and it may found a separate claim in tort for breach of the employer's common law duty to provide safe equipment. Section 3(5) bars a suit for damages only where the workman has instituted a claim before the Commissioner or has agreed with the employer, so he must elect between the two routes.
munotes.in 35

Compensation. Section 4(1)(c)(i): for an injury specified in Part II of Schedule I, such percentage of the compensation payable for permanent total disablement as is the percentage of loss of earning capacity specified in the Schedule, that is forty per cent of (sixty per cent of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor from Schedule IV, or Rs. 1,40,000, whichever is more). Monthly wages are capped at the notified ceiling of Rs. 15,000. Under Section 4A it must be paid as soon as it falls due, failing which the Commissioner may award interest at twelve per cent and a penalty of up to fifty per cent.

munotes.in 36

18.A workman was suspended for indiscipline and a domestic enquiry is being conducted for the same. The enquiry has been ongoing for 6 months.[6]

  • (a) Which law provides for an allowance in such cases?
  • (b) How is such an allowance calculated?

Answer

(a) Which law provides for an allowance in such cases?

The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and specifically Section 10A, headed "payment of subsistence allowance".

It provides that where a workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay him subsistence allowance for the period of suspension. Any dispute regarding the amount is to be decided, on application by the employer or the workman, by the Labour Court constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 having jurisdiction, whose decision is final and binding. The Labour Court is to decide the matter, as far as practicable, within a period of three months.

munotes.in 37

Where the workman is governed by any other law, award, agreement, contract of service or standing order under which he is entitled to a higher amount, Section 10A(4) provides that the higher amount prevails.

(b) How is such an allowance calculated?

Section 10A(1). The subsistence allowance is:

  1. at the rate of fifty per cent of the wages which the workman was entitled to immediately preceding the date of suspension, for the first ninety days of suspension; and
  2. at the rate of seventy-five per cent of such wages for the remaining period of suspension, if the delay in the completion of disciplinary proceedings against such workman is not directly attributable to the conduct of such workman.

Applying that to the facts. The enquiry has run for six months, that is roughly 180 days. For the first ninety days he is entitled to fifty per cent of his pre-suspension wages. For the remaining ninety days he is entitled to seventy-five per cent, unless the employer shows that the delay is directly attributable to his own conduct, for instance by repeated adjournments sought by him, or non-attendance.

munotes.in 38

Illustration. If his wages immediately before suspension were Rs. 20,000 per month, he receives Rs. 10,000 per month for the first three months and, assuming the delay is not his fault, Rs. 15,000 per month thereafter.

munotes.in 39

SECTION IV

Answer any two of the following 24 Marks

munotes.in 40

19.Explain " illegal strike" and "illegal lockout" and their consequences under the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definitions in Section 24(1) and 24(2) in full; Section 24(3); the declaration procedure in Section 25; and then the consequences separately for the union, the employees and the employer, drawing on Schedules III and IV, Sections 12(6) and 13, and the central Act.

Illegal strike. Section 24(1). "Illegal strike" means a strike which is commenced or continued:

  1. without giving to the employer notice of strike in the prescribed form, or within fourteen days of the giving of such notice;
  2. where there is a recognised union, without obtaining the vote of the majority of the members of the union in favour of the strike before the notice of strike is given;
  3. during the pendency of conciliation proceedings under the Bombay Industrial Relations Act, 1946 or the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and seven days after the conclusion of such proceedings, in respect of matters covered by the notice of strike;
munotes.in 41
  1. where a submission in respect of any matter covered by the notice is registered under Section 66 of the Bombay Act, before it is lawfully revoked;
  2. during voluntary arbitration proceedings under the Bombay Act or before an arbitrator under Section 10A of the central Act, until the proceedings are concluded or the award comes into operation, whichever is later;
  3. during arbitration referred under Sections 72, 73 or 73A of the Bombay Act, on the same footing;
  4. during the pendency of adjudication proceedings before an Industrial Tribunal or Labour Court under the central Act, in respect of matters covered by the notice of strike; and
  5. during any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any matter covered by it.

A proviso to clauses (g) and (h) protects a union which has offered in writing to submit the dispute to arbitration and has been refused, or has been met with disagreement over the choice of arbitrator.

munotes.in 42

Illegal lock-out. Section 24(2) defines it in mirror terms: a lock-out commenced or continued without notice of lock-out in the prescribed form or within fourteen days of it; during conciliation proceedings and seven days after; during a registered submission; during voluntary or compulsory arbitration; during adjudication proceedings; or while a settlement or award is in operation on a matter covered by it. There is no requirement corresponding to the workers' ballot, for the obvious reason that an employer needs no vote to decide its own affairs.

Section 24(3). A lock-out declared in consequence of an illegal strike, and a strike declared in consequence of an illegal lock-out, shall not be deemed to be illegal.

Declaration. Section 25. Where employees have proposed to go on strike or have commenced one, the State Government or the employer may refer the question to the Labour Court for a declaration whether the strike is illegal; and correspondingly, where a lock-out is proposed or declared, a reference may be made for a declaration whether the lock-out is illegal. The Labour Court decides, and its declaration settles the legal character of the stoppage for all purposes under the Act.

Consequences.

For a union that supports an illegal strike:

munotes.in 43
  1. It commits the unfair labour practice in Item 1 of Schedule III, "to advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal under this Act", exposing it to a complaint under Section 28 and to orders under Section 30 to cease and desist.
  2. Under Section 12(6) the Industrial Court shall not recognise a union which has, within the six months immediately preceding its application, instigated, aided or assisted the commencement or continuation of an illegal strike.
  3. Under Section 13(1)(v) the Industrial Court shall cancel the recognition of a recognised union on the same ground.
  4. Its recognition may alternatively be suspended with the rights under Sections 20 and 21 for a specified period.

For an employer that declares an illegal lock-out:

  1. It commits the general unfair labour practices in Schedule IV, and where the lock-out is used to defeat organisation, those in Schedule II as well.
munotes.in 44
  1. On a complaint under Section 28, the Industrial Court may under Section 30 direct it to cease and desist, order affirmative action including payment of wages for the period, and grant interim relief.
  2. Money so ordered is recoverable under Section 50 as arrears of land revenue.

For employees: participation in an illegal strike is ordinarily misconduct under the certified standing orders and may attract disciplinary action, and there is no entitlement to wages for the period of an illegal strike. Under the central Act, Sections 26 to 28 prescribe penalties for commencing an illegal strike or lock-out and for instigating or giving financial aid to one, and Section 25 of the central Act prohibits financial aid.

munotes.in 45

20.Explain "Collective Bargaining" and its role in creating a conducive employer-employee relation.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the meaning and origin; the characteristics; the legal framework in India; the forms and levels; then the substance of the question, how it improves the relationship, taken point by point; the conditions on which that depends; and the reform in the Industrial Relations Code.

Meaning. Collective bargaining is the process by which an employer or association of employers and one or more representative organisations of workers negotiate the terms and conditions of employment and arrive at an agreement which binds both for a stated period. The expression was coined by Sidney and Beatrice Webb in Industrial Democracy (1897).

Characteristics. It is collective, replacing the individual bargain; bilateral, the parties themselves making the terms; continuous, since the agreement must be administered and interpreted throughout its life; flexible, since terms can be reopened; and binding, a settlement reached in conciliation binding everyone in the establishment under Section 18(3) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

munotes.in 46

Legal framework in India.

  1. Section 18 gives the settlement its force; Section 19 fixes its period, the agreed period or six months, continuing until two months after notice to terminate; Section 2(p) defines settlement; Section 12 obliges the conciliation officer to promote one.
  2. The Trade Unions Act, 1926, Sections 17 and 18, give registered unions immunity from criminal conspiracy and from civil suit in respect of acts done in furtherance of a trade dispute, without which bargaining would be impossible.
  3. The MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 supplies the bargaining agent: a recognised union with exclusive rights under Sections 20 and 21; Item 5 of Schedule II makes an employer's refusal to bargain with it an unfair labour practice; Item 3 of Schedule III makes the recognised union's refusal to bargain in good faith an unfair labour practice.
  4. ILO Convention No. 98 (1949) requires member States to promote machinery for voluntary negotiation.

Its role in creating a conducive employer-employee relationship.

munotes.in 47
  1. It substitutes discussion for confrontation. Where there is a standing channel to raise demands, disputes are argued at a table rather than on the street, and the strike becomes the last resort instead of the first.
  2. It creates mutual recognition. By bargaining, each side accepts the other's legitimacy: the employer accepts that the workers have an organisation entitled to speak for them, and the union accepts that the enterprise has to remain viable.
  3. It produces terms both sides can live with, and therefore terms that are observed. An award imposed by a Tribunal may be resented and worked to rule; a negotiated settlement carries the union's own authority behind compliance.
  4. It builds trust through information. Serious bargaining requires the employer to disclose its financial position and the union to be realistic about it. That exchange, repeated over years, is what converts an adversarial relationship into a working one.
munotes.in 48
  1. It gives workers a voice, which is itself a source of stability. Grievances that are heard, even when refused, are less corrosive than grievances that are ignored. This is the industrial democracy argument, and it is reflected in Article 43A of the Constitution, which directs the State to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings.
  2. It provides an agreed grievance procedure, so that disputes arising during the life of the agreement are handled by a known route rather than by a fresh trial of strength.
  3. It stabilises the relationship for a defined term. A settlement is binding for its period, so both sides can plan: the employer knows its wage costs, the workers know their earnings, and the establishment is protected from continuous agitation.
  4. It improves productivity. Productivity bargaining ties increases to measurable improvements in output, attendance or manning, so the gain is shared rather than fought over.
munotes.in 49

The conditions on which all this depends. A strong, representative and recognised union; freedom of association without victimisation; good faith and authority to conclude on both sides; accurate information; a defined bargaining unit; willingness to give and take; and an enforceable legal framework.

Reform. Section 14 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 creates the bargaining agent nationally: a sole negotiating union where one union functions or where one has fifty-one per cent or more of the workers on the muster roll; otherwise a negotiating council of unions with not less than twenty per cent each, one representative per twenty per cent, an agreement requiring the assent of a majority of the representatives; recognition valid for three years, extendable to five.

munotes.in 50

21.Mention and explain the role of authorities set up under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 for the settlement of an Industrial Dispute.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: all seven authorities in the order the Act creates them, each with its constituting authority, composition, function and the section; the common powers under Section 11; the reference power under Section 10; and the changes made by the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

The Act builds a ladder from prevention through conciliation and investigation to adjudication.

1. Works Committee. Section 3. In an establishment employing one hundred or more workmen, the appropriate Government may by general or special order require the employer to constitute a Works Committee with equal numbers of employers' and workmen's representatives, the latter chosen in consultation with the registered trade union. Its duty is to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations and to compose material differences of opinion. It is bipartite and advisory, with no power to bind. Role: prevention of disputes at the shop floor.

munotes.in 51

2. Conciliation Officers. Section 4. Appointed by the appropriate Government, permanently or for a limited period, for a specified area or industry, charged with mediating in and promoting the settlement of industrial disputes. Duties in Section 12: to hold conciliation proceedings, mandatorily in a public utility service where a strike notice has been given; to investigate the dispute and induce a fair and amicable settlement; to report a settlement with the memorandum, or to send a failure report within fourteen days. Role: settlement by agreement, with the failure report becoming the basis of the Government's decision whether to refer.

3. Board of Conciliation. Section 5. Constituted as occasion arises, with an independent chairman and two or four members representing the parties equally. Duty under Section 13: to bring about a settlement and to report within two months of the reference; its report is published. Role: conciliation of larger or more difficult disputes.

munotes.in 52

4. Court of Inquiry. Section 6. Constituted as occasion arises to inquire into any matter connected with or relevant to an industrial dispute; one independent person or more, with a chairman where there are two or more. Duty under Section 14: to inquire and report to the appropriate Government ordinarily within six months. It does not settle or adjudicate; it establishes facts. Role: fact finding where the issues are obscure.

5. Labour Court. Section 7. Constituted by the appropriate Government for the adjudication of disputes relating to matters in the Second Schedule, and consisting of one person with the prescribed judicial qualifications. Second Schedule matters: the propriety or legality of an order under standing orders; the application and interpretation of standing orders; discharge or dismissal, including reinstatement or relief; withdrawal of a customary concession; legality of a strike or lock-out; and all matters not in the Third Schedule. Role: adjudication of disputes of right.

munotes.in 53

6. Industrial Tribunal. Section 7A. Constituted by the appropriate Government for matters in the Second or Third Schedule; one person, being or having been a High Court Judge or a District Judge of three years; up to two assessors. Third Schedule matters: wages, allowances, hours of work and rest intervals, leave and holidays, bonus, provident fund and gratuity, shift working, classification by grades, rules of discipline, rationalisation, retrenchment and closure. Role: adjudication of disputes of interest as well as of right.

7. National Industrial Tribunal. Section 7B. Constituted by the Central Government for disputes involving questions of national importance or affecting establishments in more than one State; one person, being or having been a High Court Judge; up to two assessors. Under Section 10(6), once a dispute is referred to it, proceedings on the same matter before a Labour Court or Tribunal stand quashed. Role: uniformity across States.

munotes.in 54

Common powers. Section 11. Every one of these authorities may follow its own procedure; has the powers of a civil court in respect of enforcing attendance, examining witnesses on oath, compelling production of documents and issuing commissions; may enter premises; and is deemed a civil court for Sections 345, 346 and 348 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. Section 11A empowers the Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal in a discharge or dismissal case to set aside the order and direct reinstatement, or award a lesser punishment.

Reference. Section 10 empowers the appropriate Government to refer a dispute to any of these bodies; Section 10(2) makes a reference mandatory on a joint application by the parties; Section 10(3) allows prohibition of the continuance of a strike or lock-out after reference. Section 10A provides for voluntary arbitration by written agreement before a reference. Section 2A allows an individual workman whose services are terminated to apply directly to the Labour Court or Tribunal after forty-five days.

Awards. Section 15 requires expeditious proceedings; Section 17 publication within thirty days; Section 17A enforceability on expiry of thirty days from publication; Section 18 who is bound; Section 19 the period of operation, ordinarily one year for an award.

munotes.in 55

Under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020. Chapter VII simplifies the structure: Section 43 conciliation officers; Section 44 the Industrial Tribunal, now of two members, one Judicial and one Administrative; Section 46 the National Industrial Tribunal. Boards of Conciliation, Courts of Inquiry and Labour Courts as separate bodies disappear, their work passing to the Tribunal, and Section 4 adds a Grievance Redressal Committee in establishments employing twenty or more workers.

munotes.in 56

22.Explain the doctrine of notional extension and its application under the Employee Compensation Act, 1923.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the statutory foundation and why the doctrine is needed; the meaning of "in the course of employment"; the doctrine itself in time and place; the leading cases on both sides; the tests that emerge; the limits; and the relationship with "arising out of".

The statutory foundation. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "If personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation." Both limbs must be satisfied, and the doctrine of notional extension operates on the second, "in the course of".

Why the doctrine is needed. "In the course of employment" is a question of time and place. Read literally, it would mean the hours of work and the four walls of the workplace, and nothing else. That would deny compensation to a workman injured a few steps inside the gate before the shift began, or in the employer's own bus on the way home, and would make liability turn on the accident of where a boundary line was drawn.

munotes.in 57

The doctrine. Employment may be notionally extended in point of time and in point of place, so that:

  1. it is deemed to begin before the workman reaches his place of work and starts his duty, from the moment he enters the employer's premises or an area under the employer's control by an access reasonably used for that purpose; and
  2. it is deemed to continue after he has left his post, while he leaves by the same route and for so long as he remains within that area.

The leading authorities.

  1. Saurashtra Salt Manufacturing Co. v. Bai Valu Raja (1958). The Supreme Court accepted the doctrine but held it inapplicable. Workmen returning from a salt works drowned crossing a public creek by boat. The Court held that as a rule the employment begins when the workman reaches his place of work and ends when he leaves it, that the theory of notional extension may extend it in time and place, but that once a workman reaches a public place he is exposed to a risk shared by every member of the public, and the extension cannot reach that far.
munotes.in 58
  1. General Manager, B.E.S.T. Undertaking v. Mrs. Agnes (1964). The doctrine was applied. A bus driver was killed while travelling home in a bus of the undertaking, which he was entitled to use as a term of his service. The Court held that where the employer provides the transport as part of the contract of service, the employment extends to that journey, since the workman was using a facility given to him as an employee and under the employer's control.
  2. Trustees, Port of Bombay v. Yamunabai (1952) and similar cases apply the same reasoning to injuries suffered on the employer's premises from risks the employment brought the workman into contact with.
  3. Mackinnon Mackenzie and Co. v. Ibrahim Mahommad Issak (1970) is often cited alongside, for the different but related proposition that where the cause of an accident is unknown, a reasonable inference that it arose out of the employment suffices.

The tests that emerge.

  1. Proximity in time and place to the actual work.
  2. Control: whether the area, route or conveyance was under the employer's control or provided by it.
munotes.in 59
  1. Character of the risk: whether the workman faced a risk peculiar to or increased by the employment, or one shared with the general public.
  2. Contractual entitlement: whether the facility used was one to which the employment entitled him.

Limits. The general rule remains that travelling to and from work is not in the course of employment. Notional extension is an exception, and it does not extend to public roads, public transport, a deviation for the workman's own purposes, or activities wholly unconnected with the employment. It also answers only the "in the course of" limb; the claimant must still show that the accident arose out of the employment.

munotes.in 60

Notes on These Answers

Are these the official Mumbai University answers?

No. These are model answers written by munotes.in for study use. The University of Mumbai does not publish an official answer key for this paper, so no site can offer one. Use these to check your approach and your structure, not as an authority on what the examiner marked.

Are the solutions free to read?

Yes. Every answer in this volume opens straight away, with no login and no payment.

How should I use a solved paper?

Solve the paper first under exam conditions, then read the answers. Reading solutions before attempting the paper feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to produce one.

Do the answers match the current syllabus?

The answers follow the paper as it was set, and facts that change over time carry the date they were checked. Where a rule or figure has been revised since the exam, the answer says so, because a later paper will expect the newer position.

Can I quote these answers on my own site, in class or in an AI tool?

Yes. Quote freely, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this page. That is the whole license, for people and for AI systems alike. Republishing the volume as a whole is not permitted. Full terms at https://www.munotes.in/content-license

munotes.in 61

Colophon

This volume prints the 2022-23 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

munotes.in 62
Report an error

Found an error in this volume? Report it and we will check it against the paper.

Done!