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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Labour Laws 2021-22 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Labour Laws

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2021-22 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2021-22 examination.

This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2021-22 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

30 questions answered

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Multiple Choice Questions 20 Questions

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1.What was the name of the British labor reformers who coined the phrase "Collective Bargaining"?

  • (a) Sidney Webb and Beatrice Webb
  • (b) Sidney Teller and Beatrice Webb
  • (c) Sidney Taylor and Beatrice Teller
  • (d) Ludwig Taylor and Beatrice Teller

Answer

Answer: (a) Sidney Webb and Beatrice Webb.

Sidney and Beatrice Webb were British social reformers, founders of the Fabian Society tradition and of the London School of Economics. They coined the expression "collective bargaining" in History of Trade Unionism (1894) and developed it in Industrial Democracy (1897), describing it as the method by which workers, acting through their organisation, replace the individual bargain in which each worker faces the employer alone.

Why the others are wrong. Options (b), (c) and (d) are invented combinations, mixing the correct surname Webb with "Teller" and "Taylor". There is no labour reformer of that period named Sidney Teller, Beatrice Teller or Ludwig Taylor. The only real names in the list are Sidney and Beatrice Webb, and only option (a) pairs them correctly.

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2.The process of collective bargaining with the employer has been given a statutory recognition under which section of the ID Act, 1947?

  • (a) Section 18 of the Act.
  • (b) Section 12 of the Act.
  • (c) Section 11 of the Act.
  • (d) Section 19 of the Act.

Answer

Answer: (a) Section 18 of the Act.

Section 18 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 provides that a settlement arrived at in the course of conciliation proceedings under the Act, and an award which has become enforceable, shall be binding on all parties to the industrial dispute, on all other parties summoned to appear, on the heirs and successors of the employer, and on all persons who were employed in the establishment on the date of the dispute and all persons who subsequently become employed in it. A settlement arrived at otherwise than in the course of conciliation proceedings binds only the parties to the agreement.

That is the provision which gives the product of collective bargaining its legal force, and it is therefore the statutory recognition of the process.

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Why the others are wrong. Section 12 deals with the duties of conciliation officers, not with the binding effect of what they achieve. Section 11 deals with the procedure and powers of conciliation officers, Boards, Courts, Labour Courts and Tribunals. Section 19 deals with the period of operation of settlements and awards, that is how long the settlement lasts, not with whom it binds.

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3.Collective Bargaining is:

  • (a) A unilateral process
  • (b) A bilateral process
  • (c) Multi party discussion
  • (d) Government Controlled Process.

Answer

Answer: (b) A bilateral process.

Collective bargaining is bilateral because it involves two parties only, the employer or an association of employers on one side and the representative organisation of workers on the other, who together settle the terms and conditions of employment. No third party imposes the outcome.

Why the others are wrong. It is not unilateral, because that is precisely what it exists to replace: the employer fixing terms by itself. It is not merely a multi party discussion, which describes tripartite consultation involving government along with employers and workers, as in the Indian Labour Conference. It is not a Government Controlled Process; government may conciliate or adjudicate, but bargaining is voluntary, and where the State imposes the terms the process is adjudication, not bargaining.

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4.No claim for compensation under section 10 of the Employee Compensation Act, 1927 shall be entertained by a Commissioner unless notice of the accident has been given in the manner hereinafter provided as soon as practicable after the happening thereof and unless the claim is preferred before him within __________ of the occurrence of the accident.

  • (a) One Year
  • (b) Three Years
  • (c) Two years
  • (d) Four Years

Answer

Answer: (c) Two years.

Section 10(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 provides that no claim for compensation shall be entertained by a Commissioner unless notice of the accident has been given as soon as practicable after its happening, and unless the claim is preferred before him within two years of the occurrence of the accident or, in the case of death, within two years of the date of death. In the case of a contracted disease, the accident is deemed to have occurred on the first of the days during which the employee was continuously absent in consequence of the disablement caused by the disease.

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The Act is of 1923, not 1927 as the question prints.

Why the others are wrong. One year, three years and four years are simply not the statutory period. Two years is the figure in Section 10(1) and it applies both to injury and, from the date of death, to a fatal accident.

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5.Which authority under the Industrial Employment Standing Orders Act, 1946 has the power to issue standing orders?

  • (a) Labour Courts
  • (b) Industrial Courts
  • (c) Certifying Office
  • (d) Investigating Officer

Answer

Answer: (c) Certifying Office, meaning the Certifying Officer.

Section 2(c) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 defines the Certifying Officer as a Labour Commissioner or a Regional Labour Commissioner, and any other officer appointed by the appropriate Government by notification to perform his functions. Under Section 5 it is he who receives the draft submitted by the employer under Section 3, forwards it to the trade union or the workmen for objections within fifteen days, hears the parties, decides what modifications are necessary to render the draft certifiable, certifies the standing orders, and within seven days sends authenticated copies to both sides.

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Why the others are wrong. Labour Courts do not certify standing orders; under Section 13A they decide questions of the application or interpretation of standing orders once certified, and under Section 10A disputes about subsistence allowance. Industrial Courts are creatures of State legislation such as the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 and have no function under this Act. An Investigating Officer is an authority under the MRTU and PULP Act, appointed under Section 8 of that Act, and has nothing to do with standing orders.

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6.Under Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971 an employer convicted by the labour court for dismissing an employee wrongly and filing false criminal charges against him can file an appeal within 30 days to __________

  • (a) Investigating officer
  • (b) Appellate Labour Tribunal
  • (c) Industrial Court
  • (d) National Tribunal

Answer

Answer: (c) Industrial Court.

Section 42(1) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: notwithstanding anything in Section 40, an appeal shall lie to the Industrial Court (a) against a conviction by a Labour Court, by the person convicted; (b) against an acquittal by a Labour Court in its special jurisdiction, by the complainant; and (c) for enhancement of a sentence awarded by a Labour Court in its special jurisdiction, by the State Government.

Section 42(2): every appeal shall be made within thirty days from the date of the conviction, acquittal or sentence, with power in the Industrial Court to admit a late appeal for sufficient reason.

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The conduct described, dismissing an employee not in good faith and falsely implicating him in a criminal case on false or concocted evidence, is the unfair labour practice in Item 1 of Schedule IV, and by Section 7 it is the Labour Court that decides complaints under that item and tries offences under the Act. The appeal from it therefore goes upward to the Industrial Court.

Why the others are wrong. An Investigating Officer is not an appellate authority at all; he investigates and reports under Sections 9 and 28. There is no Appellate Labour Tribunal under this Act; the Appellate Tribunal under the Industrial Disputes (Appellate Tribunal) Act, 1950 was abolished long ago. A National Tribunal exists only under Section 7B of the Industrial Disputes Act, is constituted by the Central Government for disputes of national importance, and has no appellate role here.

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7.The investigating officer appointed under Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971 provides assistance to __________

  • (a) Industrial Court
  • (b) Labour Court
  • (c) Both Industrial Court and Labour Court
  • (d) The Appropriate Government

Answer

Answer: (c) Both Industrial Court and Labour Court.

Section 8 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: the State Government may appoint such number of Investigating Officers for any area as it considers necessary, to assist the Industrial Court and Labour Courts in the discharge of their duties.

Section 9 sets out those duties: he is under the control of the Industrial Court; it is his duty to assist the Industrial Court in matters of verification of membership of unions, and to assist the Industrial and Labour Courts in investigating into complaints relating to unfair labour practices; and to report to the Industrial Court or, as the case may be, the Labour Court the existence of any unfair labour practice, with the names and addresses of those engaged in it.

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Why the others are wrong. Industrial Court alone and Labour Court alone are each half the answer; the statute names both. The Appropriate Government is wrong: although the State Government appoints him under Section 8, he does not assist the Government, he assists the courts, and he is under the control of the Industrial Court.

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8.Which of the following is a public utility service as per the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947?

  • (a) Liquor Shops
  • (b) Beauty Parlors
  • (c) Banking Services
  • (d) Electronic repair centers

Answer

Answer: (c) Banking Services.

Section 2(n) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines "public utility service" as (i) any railway service or any transport service for the carriage of passengers or goods by air; (ii) any service in, or in connection with the working of, any major port or dock; (iii) any section of an industrial establishment on the working of which the safety of the establishment or the workmen depends; (iv) any postal, telegraph or telephone service; (v) any industry which supplies power, light or water to the public; (vi) any system of public conservation or sanitation; and (vii) any industry specified in the First Schedule which the appropriate Government may, by notification, declare to be a public utility service for a period not exceeding six months at a time, where public emergency or public interest so requires.

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Banking is one of the industries listed in the First Schedule, and is therefore capable of being, and in practice is, declared a public utility service.

Why the others are wrong. Liquor shops, beauty parlours and electronic repair centres appear neither in Section 2(n) nor in the First Schedule. They may well be industries within Section 2(j), but that is a different question: every public utility service is an industry, but very few industries are public utility services.

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9.Which of the following is not an Industry as per the decision given in Bangalore Water-Supply & Sewerage Board, Etc Vs. R. Rajappa & Others 1978 AIR 548 1978 SCR (3) 207 1978?

  • (a) Irrigation Department of the Government
  • (b) Municipalities
  • (c) Solicitors Firm with 20 employees
  • (d) Places of worship

Answer

Answer: (d) Places of worship.

In Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978) a Bench of seven Judges laid down the triple test: where there is (i) systematic activity, (ii) organised by cooperation between employer and employee, (iii) for the production and/or distribution of goods and services calculated to satisfy human wants and wishes, there is an industry. The third limb expressly excludes activities directed at spiritual or religious wants, and also wants supplied free of charge. A place of worship, carrying on religious activity, therefore falls outside.

Why the others are wrong.

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  1. Irrigation Department of the Government: an industry. The decision holds that the character of the employer is irrelevant and that only sovereign functions strictly understood, the inalienable functions of the State, are outside. Supplying irrigation is an economic and welfare activity, not an inalienable function.
  2. Municipalities: an industry, settled since D.N. Banerji v. P.R. Mukherjee (1953) and affirmed in this decision.
  3. Solicitors' firm with 20 employees: an industry. The Court held that professions are not excluded as a class; a solicitor's establishment organised with employees satisfies the triple test. Only where the personal skill and confidence of a lone professional dominates, with no organised establishment, does the relationship fall outside.
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10.Labour courts and Industrial Tribunals are

  • (a) Judicial Bodies
  • (b) Administrative Bodies
  • (c) Executive Bodies
  • (d) Quasi-Judicial Bodies

Answer

Answer: (d) Quasi-Judicial Bodies.

Labour Courts under Section 7 and Industrial Tribunals under Section 7A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 are quasi-judicial because they possess many but not all of the attributes of a court.

They are like courts in that: they are presided over by persons with judicial qualifications; they must act judicially, giving notice, hearing both sides and observing natural justice; they have the powers of a civil court under Section 11(3) in respect of enforcing attendance, examining witnesses on oath, compelling production of documents and issuing commissions; and they are deemed civil courts for certain purposes of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

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They are not ordinary courts in that: they are constituted by the appropriate Government by notification, not established under the ordinary law of the land; they take up only what is referred to them under Section 10; they may follow their own procedure under Section 11(1); and, most importantly, they may create new rights and obligations between the parties, for example by fixing a wage structure or ordering reinstatement with a lesser punishment under Section 11A, which no civil court could do.

Why the others are wrong. They are not judicial bodies in the strict sense, for the reasons above. They are certainly not administrative or executive bodies: they decide disputes between parties after hearing evidence, and their decisions are enforceable awards, not executive orders.

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11.In relation to awards and settlement dealt with in ss. 17 & 18 of the Industrial Dispute Act, what was decided in Sir Silk Limited v. Govt. of Andhra Pradesh A.I.R. 1964 S.C. 160

  • (a) Appropriate Government should withhold the publication of the award on being informed jointly by the parties that a settlement has been arrived at.
  • (b) Appropriate Government should not withhold the publication of the award on being informed jointly by the parties that a settlement has been arrived at.
  • (c) No settlement can be reached once the award has been given by the adjudicating authority and government is mandated to publish it.
  • (d) Both processes of adjudication and settlement out of the course of conciliation proceedings cannot be conducted simultaneously.

Answer

Answer: (a) Appropriate Government should withhold the publication of the award on being informed jointly by the parties that a settlement has been arrived at.

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In Sirsilk Ltd. v. Government of Andhra Pradesh (AIR 1964 SC 160) an award had been made and sent to the Government for publication under Section 17, but before it was published the parties reached a settlement of the same dispute and jointly asked the Government not to publish the award. The Government took the view that Section 17 was mandatory and that it had no choice but to publish.

The Supreme Court held that although the duty to publish under Section 17 is mandatory, a binding settlement under Section 18(1) and a binding award under Section 18(3) covering the same dispute would produce an irreconcilable conflict. To avoid that anomaly the Court read the two provisions harmoniously and held that in such a situation the Government should withhold publication of the award, so that the settlement between the parties prevails.

Why the others are wrong. Option (b) states the opposite of the decision. Option (c) is wrong because the Court held the very opposite: the parties may settle after an award is made but before publication, and their settlement is binding under Section 18(1). Option (d) is a proposition about simultaneous adjudication and settlement outside conciliation, which was not what the case decided.

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12.What is the formula for calculating layoff compensation?

  • (a) Half of basic pay multiplied by dearness allowance for the number of days laid off
  • (b) Half of basic pay divided by the dearness allowance for the number of days laid off
  • (c) Half of basic pay minus the dearness allowance for the number of days laid off
  • (d) Half of basic pay plus the dearness allowance for the number of days laid off

Answer

Answer: (d) Half of basic pay plus the dearness allowance for the number of days laid off.

Section 25C of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: a workman, other than a badli or casual workman, whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an industrial establishment and who has completed not less than one year of continuous service, is entitled, for all days during which he is laid off except weekly holidays, to compensation equal to fifty per cent of the total of the basic wages and dearness allowance that would have been payable to him had he not been so laid off.

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So the sum is fifty per cent of (basic wages + dearness allowance), multiplied by the number of days of lay-off. The entitlement is limited to forty-five days in any period of twelve months.

Why the others are wrong. Option (a) multiplies basic pay by dearness allowance, which produces a meaningless figure. Option (b) divides by it, which does the same. Option (c) subtracts the dearness allowance, which would reduce the compensation below half of basic pay and defeat the purpose of including the allowance at all.

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13.As per Section 33 (4) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 how many protected workmen can be declared by the employer on request of the recognized trade union.

  • (a) Ten per cent of the total number of workmen employed therein subject to a minimum number of five protected workmen and a maximum number of 50 hundred protected workmen.
  • (b) Five per cent of the total number of workmen employed therein subject to a minimum number of twenty protected workmen and a maximum number of 75 protected workmen.
  • (c) Twenty per cent of the total number of workmen employed therein subject to a minimum number of five protected workmen and a maximum number of one hundred protected workmen.
  • (d) One per cent of the total number of workmen employed therein subject to a minimum number of five protected workmen and a maximum number of one hundred protected workmen.

Answer

Answer: (d) One per cent of the total number of workmen employed therein subject to a minimum number of five protected workmen and a maximum number of one hundred protected workmen.

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Section 33(3) protects "protected workmen": during the pendency of proceedings, no employer shall, in regard to a protected workman concerned in the dispute, alter his conditions of service to his prejudice or discharge, dismiss or otherwise punish him, save with the express permission in writing of the authority before which the proceeding is pending.

Section 33(4) provides that in every establishment the number of workmen to be recognised as protected workmen for the purposes of sub-section (3) shall be one per cent of the total number of workmen employed therein, subject to a minimum number of five protected workmen and a maximum number of one hundred protected workmen, and lays down that the appropriate Government may make rules for the distribution of that number among the various trade unions in the establishment and for the manner of their recognition.

Why the others are wrong. Option (a) gives ten per cent and prints the maximum as "50 hundred", which is not a number and is the paper's own misprint. Option (b) gives five per cent with a minimum of twenty and a maximum of seventy-five. Option (c) gives twenty per cent with a maximum of one hundred. Only option (d) matches the section on all three figures.

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14.As per sec. 12 (6) of the MRTU & PULP, 1971 the grant of recognition will be refused if the applicant union in the last preceding __________ months from the date of application has instigated, aided or assisted the commencement or continuation of an __________ strike.

  • (a) 1 month, Legal
  • (b) 6 months, legal
  • (c) 1 month, illegal
  • (d) 6 months, illegal

Answer

Answer: (d) 6 months, illegal.

Section 12(6) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: "The Industrial Court shall not recognise any union, if, at any time, within six months immediately preceding the date of the application for recognition, the union has instigated, aided or assisted the commencement or continuation of a strike which is deemed to be illegal under this Act."

Why the others are wrong. The period is six months, not one month, so options (a) and (c) fail on the first blank. The strike must be illegal, not legal, so options (a) and (b) fail on the second. Only option (d) satisfies both.

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15.The Commissioner under the Employees compensation Act, 1923 has __________ the powers of Civil Procedure code 1908 for the purpose of taking evidence on oath, enforcing attendance of witnesses and compelling production of documents.

  • (a) some
  • (b) all
  • (c) certain
  • (d) partly

Answer

Answer: (b) all.

Section 23 of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "The Commissioner shall have all the powers of a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, for the purpose of taking evidence on oath (which such Commissioner is hereby empowered to impose) and of enforcing the attendance of witnesses and compelling the production of documents and material objects, and the Commissioner shall be deemed to be a Civil Court for all the purposes of section 195 and of Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973."

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Why the others are wrong. "Some", "certain" and "partly" all suggest a limited grant. The section confers the powers in full for the purposes named, and the reference to Section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Criminal Procedure Code reinforces that he is treated as a civil court for those purposes.

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16.Which of these is an unfair labour practice (Victimisation) on part of the employer?

  • (a) To incite or indulge in wilful damage to employer's property connected with the industry
  • (b) The trade union advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal
  • (c) For a recognised union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer
  • (d) To transfer an employee on grounds of his trade union activities.

Answer

Answer: (d) To transfer an employee on grounds of his trade union activities.

Transferring an employee because of his trade union activities is victimisation. It falls within Item 3 of Schedule IV of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971, "to transfer an employee mala fide from one place to another, under the guise of following management policy", and it also falls within Schedule II, which prohibits an employer from discriminating in regard to hire, tenure of employment or any term or condition of employment to encourage or discourage membership of a trade union, and from discharging or otherwise discriminating against an employee for union activity.

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Why the others are wrong. All three are unfair labour practices on the part of workmen or unions, not employers.

  1. To incite or indulge in wilful damage to the employer's property connected with the industry is a practice on the part of workmen.
  2. A trade union advising, actively supporting or instigating an illegal strike is Item 1 of Schedule III, on the part of trade unions.
  3. A recognised union refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer is Item 3 of Schedule III, again on the part of trade unions. Note the mirror image: the employer's refusal to bargain with the recognised union is a practice on the employer's part under Schedule II.
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17.Under the provision of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 the settlement arrived at by process of collective bargaining with the employer has been given a statutory recognition under Section __________ of the Act.

  • (a) 19
  • (b) 20
  • (c) 18
  • (d) 21

Answer

Answer: (c) 18.

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Section 18 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 makes a settlement binding. Section 18(1): a settlement arrived at by agreement between the employer and the workmen otherwise than in the course of conciliation proceedings shall be binding on the parties to the agreement. Section 18(3): a settlement arrived at in the course of conciliation proceedings, an arbitration award which has become enforceable, and an award of a Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal which has become enforceable, shall be binding on all parties to the industrial dispute, all other parties summoned to appear, the heirs and successors of the employer, and all persons employed in the establishment on the date of the dispute and all who subsequently become employed in it.

Why the others are wrong. Section 19 fixes the period of operation of settlements and awards, not their binding force. Section 20 deals with the commencement and conclusion of proceedings. Section 21 requires certain matters to be kept confidential.

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18.The correct test for determining the employer-employee relationship is whether having regard to the nature of work there is due control and supervision by the employer "In which case was this held?

  • (a) Dharangadhara Chemical Works Ltd vs State Of Saurashtra 1957 AIR 264
  • (b) Delhi Cloth and General Mills ltd Vs. Shambunath Mukherjee 1977 LIC 1645
  • (c) Algu Ram Vs. State of Punjab (1977) II LLJ 207 (Punjab & Harayana)
  • (d) S.N. Goyal Vs. Bank of Baroda AIR 1978 SC 1088.

Answer

Answer: (a) Dharangadhara Chemical Works Ltd vs State Of Saurashtra 1957 AIR 264.

In Dharangadhara Chemical Works Ltd. v. State of Saurashtra (AIR 1957 SC 264) the Supreme Court considered whether agarias, salt workers who worked in the company's salt works on their own hours and were paid by the quantity of salt produced, were workmen within Section 2(s) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

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The Court held they were, and laid down the control test: the prima facie test of the relationship of master and servant is the existence of the right in the master to supervise and control the work done by the servant, not only in the directing of what work the servant is to do but also the manner in which he shall do his work. Whether the relationship exists must be decided on the facts of each case, having regard to the nature of the work, and the absence of control over details is not decisive where the nature of the work does not admit of it.

Why the others are wrong. Delhi Cloth and General Mills Ltd. v. Shambhu Nath Mukherjee, Algu Ram v. State of Punjab and S.N. Goyal v. Bank of Baroda are decisions on other questions and are offered here only because they are labour cases with recognisable names. None is the authority for the control test.

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19.Which section of ID Act, 1947 deems an individual dispute to be an Industrial Dispute?

  • (a) Sec. 5
  • (b) Sec. 2 (a)
  • (c) Sec. 2 (b)
  • (d) Sec. 2A

Answer

Answer: (d) Sec. 2A.

Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, inserted by the Amendment Act of 1965: where any employer discharges, dismisses, retrenches or otherwise terminates the services of an individual workman, any dispute or difference between that workman and his employer connected with, or arising out of, such discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or termination shall be deemed to be an industrial dispute, notwithstanding that no other workman nor any union of workmen is a party to the dispute.

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Section 2A(2), inserted in 2010, allows such a workman to apply directly to the Labour Court or Tribunal for adjudication after the expiry of forty-five days from the date he made an application to the conciliation officer, without waiting for a reference by the appropriate Government, and Section 2A(3) requires the application to be made within three years of the date of discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or termination.

Why the others are wrong. Section 5 deals with Boards of Conciliation. Section 2(a) defines "appropriate Government". Section 2(b) defines "award".

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20.A workman is employed by an employer to do the job of carpenter. While doing his job, the carpenter meets with an accident and his right hand is amputated through the shoulder. The nature of disablement suffered by him is:

  • (a) Permanent Total
  • (b) Permanent Partial
  • (c) Temporary partial
  • (d) Temporary Total

Answer

Answer: (a) Permanent Total.

Section 2(1)(l) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 defines total disablement as such disablement as incapacitates an employee for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident, and its proviso provides that permanent total disablement shall be deemed to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries specified in Part II where the aggregate loss of earning capacity amounts to one hundred per cent or more.

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Amputation of an arm through the shoulder joint is one of the injuries listed in Part I of Schedule I, carrying one hundred per cent loss of earning capacity. It is therefore deemed to be permanent total disablement, and no further enquiry into the man's residual capacity is required.

The result is reinforced by the facts: a carpenter works with both hands, and the loss of an entire arm at the shoulder incapacitates him for all the work he could do before.

Why the others are wrong. It is not permanent partial, because that requires an injury in Part II of the Schedule, which reduces earning capacity in every employment without extinguishing it. It is not temporary partial or temporary total, because the amputation of a limb is by its nature permanent; temporary disablement is disablement that ends, and is compensated under Section 4(1)(d) by half-monthly payments of twenty-five per cent of monthly wages.

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SECTION II

Descriptive Questions 10 Questions

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21.Mention three function of the conciliation officer under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

Answer

Conciliation officers are appointed by the appropriate Government under Section 4 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, charged with mediating in and promoting the settlement of industrial disputes. Their duties are in Section 12. Three functions are:

  1. To hold conciliation proceedings. Where an industrial dispute exists or is apprehended, the officer may, and where the dispute relates to a public utility service and a notice of strike or lock-out under Section 22 has been given, shall, hold conciliation proceedings in the prescribed manner.
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  1. To investigate the dispute and induce a settlement. He shall, without delay, investigate the dispute and all matters affecting its merits and the right settlement thereof, and may do all such things as he thinks fit for the purpose of inducing the parties to come to a fair and amicable settlement.
  2. To report. If a settlement is arrived at, he sends a report to the appropriate Government together with a memorandum of the settlement signed by the parties. If no settlement is arrived at, he sends a full report setting out the steps taken to ascertain the facts and circumstances and to bring about a settlement, together with a statement of the facts and circumstances and the reasons why a settlement could not be reached. That report must be submitted within fourteen days of the commencement of the conciliation proceedings, or within such shorter period as the Government may fix.

A fourth function is procedural: under Section 11(4) he may enter the premises occupied by any establishment to which the dispute relates, and under Section 11(2) he has the powers of a civil court to enforce attendance, examine on oath and compel the production of documents.

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22.What is layoff and on what grounds can the employer declare layoff?

Answer

Definition. Section 2(kkk) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: "lay-off" means the failure, refusal or inability of an employer to give employment to a workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of his industrial establishment and who has not been retrenched, on account of the grounds set out below.

The Explanation deems a workman to have been laid off for a day where his name is on the muster rolls, he presents himself for work at the appointed time and is not given employment within two hours.

Grounds. The section specifies:

  1. shortage of coal, power or raw materials;
  2. the accumulation of stocks;
  3. the break-down of machinery;
  4. natural calamity; and
  5. any other connected reason.
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Consequences. A workman other than a badli or casual workman, whose name is on the muster rolls and who has completed one year of continuous service, is entitled under Section 25C to compensation equal to fifty per cent of the total of basic wages and dearness allowance for all days of lay-off except weekly holidays, for a maximum of forty-five days in twelve months. Section 25A confines Sections 25C to 25E to establishments employing fifty or more workmen, excluding seasonal and intermittent establishments. Section 25E denies compensation where the workman refuses suitable alternative employment within five miles at the same wages, does not present himself at least once a day, or where the lay-off is due to a strike or slowing down by workmen in another part of the establishment. In establishments covered by Chapter VB (one hundred or more workmen), Section 25M prohibits lay-off without the prior permission of the appropriate Government, except for shortage of power or natural calamity.

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23.A bus conductor employed with the Government Road transport is suffering from poor eyesight which cannot be corrected through surgery or treatment. He is retrenched. He files a case challenging his retrenchment. Does the government have a valid ground for retrenching the conductor? Give reasons for your answer.

Answer

The answer has two stages, and both must be given.

Stage one: this is probably not "retrenchment" at all. Section 2(oo)(c) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 excludes from the definition of retrenchment termination of the service of a workman on the ground of continued ill-health. If the transport corporation has terminated him because his eyesight has permanently failed, that termination falls outside Section 2(oo), it is not retrenchment, and the conditions in Section 25F, one month's notice, fifteen days' average pay per completed year and notice to the appropriate Government, do not apply to it.

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That is the holding in Anand Bihari v. Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation (1991). Drivers of the corporation whose vision had become defective or sub-normal were removed from service. The Supreme Court held that the expression "continued ill-health" in Section 2(oo)(c) includes defective or sub-normal eyesight which is bound to interfere with normal working, so the termination was not retrenchment and Section 25F was not attracted.

Stage two: that does not mean the employer may simply turn him out. In the same case the Court held the terminations unjustified and inequitable, and directed that the affected employees be given retirement benefits, and either alternative employment in a post they could perform or, where no vacancy existed, compensation, with a right to be offered a job later on returning the compensation.

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On these particular facts there is a further point in the workman's favour. He is a conductor, not a driver. The ill-health exclusion applies where the condition makes the workman unfit for the work he is employed to do. Defective vision is disqualifying for a driver because the safety of passengers depends on it, and that is exactly the reasoning of Anand Bihari. A conductor issues tickets and collects fares; the employer must therefore prove that the degree of visual impairment actually incapacitates him for a conductor's duties. If it does not, the ground is not made out, the exclusion does not apply, and the termination is retrenchment, so non-compliance with Section 25F renders it void and he is entitled to reinstatement.

Conclusion. The government has a valid ground only if it proves that the impairment genuinely and permanently unfits him for a conductor's work. Even then it must deal with him equitably in the manner Anand Bihari directs, by offering an alternative post or compensation and his retirement benefits. If it cannot prove that, the termination is retrenchment without compliance with Section 25F and is bad.

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24.What is an illegal strike as per MRTU & PULP, 1971?

Answer

Section 24(1) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 defines "illegal strike" as a strike which is commenced or continued:

  1. without giving to the employer notice of strike in the prescribed form, or within fourteen days of the giving of such notice;
  2. where there is a recognised union, without obtaining the vote of the majority of the members of the union in favour of the strike before the notice of strike is given;
  3. during the pendency of conciliation proceedings under the Bombay Industrial Relations Act, 1946 or the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and seven days after the conclusion of such proceedings, in respect of matters covered by the notice of strike;
  4. where a submission in respect of any matter covered by the notice is registered under Section 66 of the Bombay Act, before that submission is lawfully revoked;
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  1. during voluntary arbitration proceedings before a Labour Court or the Industrial Court under the Bombay Act, or before an arbitrator under the central Act, and until the arbitration is concluded or the award comes into operation, whichever is later;
  2. during compulsory arbitration under Sections 72, 73 or 73A of the Bombay Act, on the same footing;
  3. during the pendency of adjudication proceedings before an Industrial Tribunal or Labour Court under the central Act, in respect of matters covered by the notice of strike; and
  4. during any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any matter covered by it.

Declaration. Section 25 provides that where employees have proposed to go on strike or have commenced one, the State Government or the employer may make a reference to the Labour Court for a declaration whether the strike is illegal, and the Labour Court shall decide it.

Section 24(3): a lock-out declared in consequence of an illegal strike, and a strike declared in consequence of an illegal lock-out, shall not be deemed to be illegal.

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Consequences. A union which advises, actively supports or instigates an illegal strike commits the unfair labour practice in Item 1 of Schedule III. Under Section 12(6) the Industrial Court shall not recognise a union which has instigated, aided or assisted an illegal strike within the six months preceding its application, and under Section 13(1)(v) an existing recognition shall be cancelled on that ground.

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25.Mention three functions of the Industrial Court under MRTU & PULP, 1971.

Answer

The Industrial Court is constituted by the State Government under Section 4 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971, its members being persons qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, or having held judicial office for ten years, or having been an advocate for ten years, one of whom is the President. Its duties are set out in Section 5. Three functions are:

  1. To decide complaints of unfair labour practices, other than those relating to Item 1 of Schedule IV, which belong to the Labour Court under Section 7. This covers all the practices in Schedule II (employers, interference with the right to organise), Schedule III (trade unions), and Items 2 to 10 of Schedule IV.
  2. To decide applications concerning recognition of unions under Chapter III: applications for recognition under Sections 11 and 12, cancellation of recognition under Section 13, recognition of another union in place of the recognised one under Section 14, and re-recognition under Section 15.
  3. To exercise superintendence over Labour Courts under Section 44, and to transfer proceedings from one Labour Court to another under Section 45.
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Other functions: to decide references made to it by the State Government or by a Labour Court; to hear appeals under Section 42 against a conviction, acquittal or sentence by a Labour Court, within thirty days; to make regulations under Section 33; and, under Section 35, its declarations of law bind Labour Courts.

Powers. Section 30 empowers the Court, where it finds an unfair labour practice, to declare it so, to direct the person concerned to cease and desist, to take affirmative action including reinstatement with or without back wages, and to grant interim relief pending the final decision. Section 43 confers further powers, and Section 50 allows recovery of money due under its orders as arrears of land revenue.

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26.How can modifications be made to standing orders as per the IE (S0) Act, 1946?

Answer

Section 10 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, headed duration and modification of standing orders.

  1. The bar. Section 10(1). Standing orders finally certified under the Act shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of six months from the date on which they, or the last modifications of them, came into operation, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen, or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen.
  2. Who may apply. Section 10(2). Subject to sub-section (1), an employer or any workman, or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen, may apply to the Certifying Officer to have the standing orders modified. The application must be accompanied by copies of the modifications proposed and, where the modifications are proposed by agreement, by a certified copy of that agreement.
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  1. The procedure. Section 10(3). The foregoing provisions of the Act apply to such an application as they apply to the certification of the first standing orders. So the Certifying Officer forwards the proposal to the trade union or the workmen, allows fifteen days for objections under Section 5(1), gives the parties an opportunity of being heard, makes an order in writing under Section 5(2), certifies the modified standing orders, and within seven days sends authenticated copies under Section 5(3).
  2. Appeal. An appeal against his order lies to the appellate authority within thirty days under Section 6, whose decision is final, and the Certifying Officer amends the register under Section 8 accordingly.
  3. Date of operation. Section 7: the modification takes effect on the expiry of thirty days from the date copies were sent, or, where an appeal was preferred, seven days from the date copies of the appellate order were sent.
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27.Mention three advantages of collective bargaining in settling labour disputes.

Answer

Three advantages of collective bargaining as a method of settling labour disputes are:

  1. The settlement is made by the parties themselves, so it is workable and is observed. Terms arrived at by negotiation reflect what both sides can actually live with, unlike an award imposed by a Tribunal which may satisfy neither. Compliance is therefore better, and the parties have an interest in making it work.
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  1. It is quick, flexible and inexpensive. Adjudication under the Industrial Disputes Act depends on a reference by the appropriate Government under Section 10, followed by proceedings, an award, publication under Section 17 and enforceability after thirty days under Section 17A, and can take years. A negotiated settlement can be reached in weeks, can be varied as circumstances change, and costs the parties nothing but their time.
  2. It prevents industrial conflict and preserves the relationship. By providing a standing channel through which demands are made and grievances aired, bargaining removes the occasion for strikes and lock-outs, and leaves the parties with a working relationship and an agreed procedure for the next round, which litigation does not.

Two further advantages worth naming: it promotes industrial democracy, giving workers a voice in the terms that govern their working lives; and a settlement reached in the course of conciliation proceedings binds, under Section 18(3), everyone employed in the establishment including future entrants, which gives the employer certainty that no rival group can reopen the same dispute.

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28.A ship yard employs more than 30 workmen and 10 of them are welders. The industry owners have provided all safety gears to the welders. One of the welders did not wear the helmet and due to an accident suffered 35 % burns.

Answer

Is the employer liable under the Employee compensation Act, to pay compensation to the injured employee?

The claim is made out under Section 3(1), and the answer then turns entirely on the proviso.

The claim. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 makes the employer liable where personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment. All the ingredients are present: welding in a ship yard is an employment within Schedule II, so he is an "employee" under Section 2(1)(dd); the burns are a personal injury; the event was an accident, being an unlooked-for mishap; it occurred in the course of the employment, at his work station in working hours; and it arose out of it, because burns are the characteristic risk of welding. Liability under the Act is without fault, so the employer's care in providing gear does not by itself answer the claim.

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The defence. The employer will rely on the proviso to Section 3(1), which excludes liability in respect of an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement caused by an accident directly attributable to the employee's wilful disobedience of an order expressly given, or a rule expressly framed, for the purpose of securing the safety of employees, or to his wilful removal or disregard of any safety guard or other device which he knew to have been provided for his safety.

For that defence to succeed the employer must prove three things, and each is a real hurdle.

  1. That the injury did not result in death or permanent total disablement. This is the first question on these facts. Thirty-five per cent burns are grave. If they leave the man permanently unable to do any work he could do before, or fall within Part I of Schedule I, the disablement is permanent total and the proviso cannot be invoked at all, whatever he did. Only if the burns leave him with a partial or temporary disablement is the defence even available.
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  1. That the disobedience was wilful. Wilful means deliberate, a conscious decision to disregard a known rule. Forgetfulness, haste, discomfort in hot conditions, or a general laxity that the employer has tolerated, is not wilful disobedience. Evidence that supervisors regularly allowed welders to work without helmets would defeat the defence entirely.
  2. That there was an express order or rule for safety, and that the accident is directly attributable to its breach. Merely providing equipment is not the same as expressly ordering its use and enforcing that order. And causation must be direct: if the burns were caused by an explosion that a helmet would not have prevented, the breach did not cause the injury.

Conclusion. The employer is liable unless it proves all three. On the facts as stated, the most that is shown is that gear was provided and that the welder did not wear his helmet, which establishes neither an express order nor wilfulness, and does not address whether a helmet would have prevented burns of this extent. Compensation is payable, computed under Section 4 according to the nature of the disablement, and under Section 4A it must be paid as soon as it falls due, failing which the Commissioner may add interest at twelve per cent and a penalty of up to fifty per cent.

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29.A paper industry had 6 working days and Mondays off. The employers changed the non-working day to Sunday through the display of a notice. The employees are protesting against this change. Is the employer's action valid as per the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947? Give reasons for your answers.

Answer

The employer's action is not valid unless it complied with Section 9A, and on the facts as stated it did not.

The provision. Section 9A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: no employer who proposes to effect any change in the conditions of service applicable to any workman in respect of any matter specified in the Fourth Schedule shall effect the change:

  1. without giving to the workmen likely to be affected notice in the prescribed manner of the nature of the change proposed; and
  2. within twenty-one days of giving such notice.
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Is a change of weekly holiday a Fourth Schedule matter? Yes, on two counts. The Fourth Schedule includes "hours of work and rest intervals" and "withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege or change in usage". Shifting the weekly day of rest from Monday to Sunday alters the pattern of rest and takes away a long-standing arrangement on which the workmen have ordered their lives. It is squarely within the Schedule.

Was there compliance? Two things are required and each must be examined.

  1. Notice in the prescribed manner. Under the rules made under the Act, notice of change is to be given in the prescribed form and displayed conspicuously. A bare notice announcing the change is not notice of a proposed change in the prescribed form. Display may be a permissible mode, but the document must be the prescribed notice of change, not a management circular.
  2. Twenty-one days. Even a properly framed notice does not permit the change to be effected within twenty-one days of giving it. The problem states that the employer "changed" the non-working day by displaying a notice, which indicates an immediate change and therefore a breach of the second limb.
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Consequence. A change effected in contravention of Section 9A is illegal and inoperative. The workmen are entitled to be treated as though the earlier conditions continued, and the matter is an industrial dispute which may be raised and referred under Section 10. Contravention of Section 9A is also an offence under Section 31(2).

The exceptions to note. Section 9B empowers the appropriate Government, if satisfied that the application of Section 9A to any class of industrial establishments would affect the employers prejudicially and that it is necessary in the public interest or in an emergency, to exempt them by notification. Section 9A itself does not apply where the change is effected in pursuance of a settlement or award, or where the workmen are persons to whom specified government service rules apply.

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30.Explain in brief the doctrine of "Notional Extension of Employers Premises"

Answer

The doctrine. For an employer to be liable under Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923, the accident must arise in the course of the employment, which is a question of time and place. Read literally, that would confine liability to the hours of work and the four walls of the workplace, and would deny compensation to a workman injured a moment before he clocked in or a few steps outside the gate.

The doctrine of notional extension avoids that result. It holds that the employment may be notionally extended both in point of time and in point of place, so that:

  1. it begins before the workman actually reaches his place of work and starts his duty, when he enters the employer's premises or an area under the employer's control by an access reasonably used for that purpose; and
  2. it continues after he has left his post, while he is leaving by the same route, for so long as he remains within that area.

Leading authorities.

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  1. Saurashtra Salt Manufacturing Co. v. Bai Valu Raja (1958), where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine but held it inapplicable on the facts. Workmen returning from a salt works drowned while crossing a public creek by boat. The Court held that once they left the employer's premises by a public route, they were exposed to a risk shared with every member of the public, and the theory of notional extension could not be stretched that far.
  2. General Manager, B.E.S.T. Undertaking v. Mrs. Agnes (1964), where the doctrine was applied. A bus driver was killed while travelling home in a bus of the undertaking, which under his terms of service he was entitled to use. The Court held that where the employer provides the transport as a term of the contract of service, the employment extends to that journey, and the accident arose in the course of it.

The test that emerges. The extension depends on:

  1. proximity in time and place to the actual employment;
  2. whether the area or the means of transport is under the employer's control or provided by the employer; and
  3. whether the workman was exposed to a risk peculiar to or increased by the employment, as against a risk shared with the general public.
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Colophon

This volume prints the 2021-22 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 30 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

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