Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Labour Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Labour Laws
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2017-18 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2017-18 examination.
This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2017-18 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2017-18 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Answer in one or two sentences
All questions compulsory · 20 Marks
Answer
Section 2(a) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines "appropriate Government" by reference to who runs the industry, not by reference to where the dispute arises.
The Central Government is the appropriate Government for an industrial dispute concerning any industry carried on by or under the authority of the Central Government, or by a railway company, or concerning a controlled industry specified by the Central Government, and for the establishments named in the section: banking and insurance companies, mines, oil fields, cantonment boards, major ports, and the statutory corporations listed there.
In relation to any other industrial dispute, the appropriate Government is the State Government.
Answer
The Act extends to the whole of the State of Maharashtra. Under Section 2 it applies to the industries to which the Bombay Industrial Relations Act, 1946 applies, and to any industry as defined in Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 in relation to which the State Government is the appropriate Government.
For the recognition machinery there is a separate threshold. Section 10 provides that Chapter III applies to every undertaking wherein fifty or more employees are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months. The State Government may, on sixty days' notice, extend the Chapter to undertakings employing fewer than fifty.
If the number falls below fifty continuously for one year, Chapter III ceases to apply to that undertaking.
Answer
Section 2(1)(m) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "wages" includes any privilege or benefit which is capable of being estimated in money, other than a travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession, a contribution paid by the employer towards any pension or provident fund, and a sum paid to the employee to cover any special expenses entailed on him by the nature of his employment.
So the definition is inclusive and wide: dearness allowance, overtime, and the money value of free food or free quarters are wages, while the three excluded heads are not.
Answer
Section 10A of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 provides that where a workman is suspended pending investigation or inquiry into charges of misconduct, the employer must pay him subsistence allowance at:
Any dispute about the amount is decided by the Labour Court, whose decision is final.
Answer
Under Section 7B, the Central Government alone may, by notification, constitute one or more National Industrial Tribunals for the adjudication of industrial disputes which, in its opinion,
A National Tribunal consists of one person only, who must be, or have been, a Judge of a High Court. The Central Government may appoint up to two assessors to advise it.
Answer
Section 2(1)(l): "total disablement" means such disablement, whether of a temporary or permanent nature, as incapacitates an employee for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident resulting in such disablement.
The proviso adds a deeming rule: permanent total disablement is deemed to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries specified in Part II where the aggregate percentage of loss of earning capacity, as specified against those injuries, amounts to one hundred per cent or more.
Answer
"Lay-off" is defined in Section 2(kkk) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 as the failure, refusal or inability of an employer to give employment to a workman whose name is on the muster rolls and who has not been retrenched, on account of:
Any two of these are grounds for lay-off.
Answer
Section 24(2) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 defines an illegal lock-out. Two instances are:
A third instance is a lock-out declared during any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any matter covered by that settlement or award.
Answer
Section 3(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: in the case of any industrial establishment in which one hundred or more workmen are employed, or have been employed on any day in the preceding twelve months, the appropriate Government may, by general or special order, require the employer to constitute a Works Committee.
The Committee consists of representatives of employers and workmen in equal number, and the workmen's representatives are chosen in consultation with the registered trade union, if any. Its duty is to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and the workmen and, to that end, to comment upon matters of common interest and to compose any material difference of opinion.
Answer
Section 10 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946. Standing orders finally certified shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of six months from the date on which they, or the last modification of them, came into operation, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen.
After that period, the employer or any workman or a trade union or other representative body may apply to the Certifying Officer to have the standing orders modified, and the application must be accompanied by copies of the modifications proposed. Where the modification is by agreement, a certified copy of the agreement is filed with the application.
The same procedure as for original certification then applies.
Write short notes on any four of the following 20 Marks
Answer
Section 9A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. No employer who proposes to effect any change in the conditions of service applicable to any workman in respect of any matter specified in the Fourth Schedule shall effect that change:
Matters in the Fourth Schedule include wages and the manner of their payment; contribution to provident fund or gratuity; compensatory and other allowances; hours of work and rest intervals; leave with wages and holidays; starting, alteration or discontinuance of shift working; classification by grades; withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege; introduction of new rules of discipline; rationalisation, standardisation or improvement of plant or technique likely to lead to retrenchment; and any increase or reduction in the number of persons employed in any department.
Section 9B allows the appropriate Government, in the public interest or in an emergency, to exempt an employer from Section 9A by notification.
Section 33 carries a related but distinct prohibition: during the pendency of conciliation or adjudication proceedings, conditions of service connected with the dispute may not be altered to the workman's prejudice without the authority's express permission.
Answer
Section 20 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. Authorised officers, office staff and members of a recognised union have the right:
Section 20(2) adds the two rights that make recognition worth having:
Section 21 adds that in proceedings about the unfair labour practices in items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV, an employee may appear only through the recognised union, unless there is none.
Answer
Section 2(1)(dd) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. "Employee" means a person, who is:
whether the contract of employment was made before or after the passing of the Act and whether it is express or implied, oral or in writing. It excludes a person whose employment is of a casual nature and who is employed otherwise than for the purposes of the employer's trade or business, and members of the Armed Forces of the Union.
Where an employee has died, "employee" includes his dependants or any of them.
Answer
The triple test is the test for "industry" under Section 2(j) laid down by a seven-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978). An activity is an industry where there is:
The Court added the dominant nature test: where a complex of activities is carried on, some of which qualify and some do not, the predominant nature of the undertaking decides, and the whole undertaking is an industry.
Excluded are sovereign functions strictly understood, that is the inalienable functions of the State such as defence, the administration of justice, and law and order; but welfare and economic activities undertaken by government departments are not excluded merely because government carries them on. Also outside are institutions run on a purely charitable and voluntary basis without employed workers, and clubs or professional relationships such as a solicitor's firm where the personal skill of the professional is dominant.
Answer
Section 2(c) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 defines "Certifying Officer" as a Labour Commissioner or a Regional Labour Commissioner, and any other officer appointed by the appropriate Government, by notification, to perform the functions of a Certifying Officer under the Act.
His functions are:
Section 11 gives him the powers of a civil court to receive evidence, administer oaths, enforce the attendance of witnesses and compel the discovery and production of documents.
Answer
Under the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923, permanent disablement is of two kinds.
Permanent total disablement. Under Section 2(1)(l) read with its proviso, disablement which incapacitates an employee for all work he was capable of performing at the time of the accident, and which is permanent. It is deemed to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries in Part II where the aggregate loss of earning capacity is one hundred per cent or more. Part I examples: loss of both hands, loss of sight to such an extent as to render the employee unable to perform any work for which eyesight is essential, very severe facial disfigurement, absolute deafness, amputation of an arm through the shoulder joint.
Permanent partial disablement. Under Section 2(1)(g), disablement of a permanent nature which reduces the earning capacity of the employee in every employment which he was capable of undertaking at the time of the accident. Every injury in Part II of Schedule I is deemed to result in permanent partial disablement, and the Schedule assigns each a percentage of loss of earning capacity: for example loss of a thumb, twenty-five per cent; loss of one eye without complications, forty per cent; amputation of a leg below the knee, fifty per cent.
Compensation under Section 4. For permanent total disablement, an amount equal to sixty per cent of the monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor in Schedule IV, or Rs. 1,40,000, whichever is more. For permanent partial disablement from a Schedule I injury, such percentage of the compensation payable for permanent total disablement as is the percentage of loss of earning capacity specified for that injury; for an injury not in the Schedule, such percentage as is proportionate to the loss of earning capacity as assessed by a qualified medical practitioner.
Attempt any two 12 Marks
Answer
Its remedy is an application under Section 14 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 for recognition of another union in place of the recognised union.
The conditions are:
On such an application the Industrial Court calls upon the recognised union to show cause within thirty days, displays notice on the notice board of the undertaking, holds an enquiry, and if satisfied, recognises the applicant union in place of the recognised union and issues a certificate.
If two years have not elapsed, Bhartiya Kamgar Sena must wait. In the meantime, if the Indian Workers' Association attracts any of the grounds in Section 13, for example its membership falls below the minimum for six continuous months, or it is not conducted bona fide in the interests of employees, an application for cancellation of its recognition lies.
No. Section 12(6) provides that the Industrial Court shall not recognise any union if, at any time within six months immediately preceding the date of the application for recognition, the union has instigated, aided or assisted the commencement or continuation of a strike which is deemed to be illegal under the Act.
The disqualification attaches to the union, not to the undertaking. The section says "any union" and "a strike", and does not require the illegal strike to have taken place in the undertaking where recognition is sought. So the assistance given to the illegal strike in ABC undertaking bars recognition in XYZ undertaking, provided it falls within the six months preceding the application.
Two qualifications. First, the strike must be illegal within the meaning of Section 24(1). If the ABC strike satisfied the notice, ballot and cooling-off requirements it was legal, and Section 12(6) is not attracted at all. Second, the bar is time-limited: once six clean months have passed since the assistance, a fresh application is maintainable.
Answer
They continue to be applicable. Certified standing orders are not a contract personal to the employer who obtained certification; they are the statutory conditions of service of the establishment, certified under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and operating under Section 7 from the date fixed there.
A transfer of ownership does not touch them. They remain in force until they are modified under Section 10, which cannot be done, except by agreement, until six months have elapsed from the date they or their last modification came into operation, and then only on an application to the Certifying Officer decided by the same procedure as original certification.
The new employer therefore steps into the establishment bound by the existing certified standing orders. If it wishes to change them it must apply, and the workmen have the right to be heard.
No, not to the employee's detriment. Certified standing orders prevail over an inconsistent individual contract. They have statutory force: they are certified by a public authority after notice, objection and hearing, they bind the whole establishment, and the Supreme Court has repeatedly held that conditions so certified become part of the terms of employment of every workman and cannot be varied by private bargain.
Two supporting points. Section 4 requires the Certifying Officer to adjudicate on the fairness or reasonableness of the provisions, so the certified term already carries a finding that it is fair. Section 10 prescribes the only route to change, and a private appointment letter is not that route; Section 36 of the Act makes oral evidence in contradiction of standing orders inadmissible.
So the six-month clause in the appointment letter is inoperative to the extent it conflicts, and the employee's probation ends at three months. The one qualification is that a contract more favourable than the standing orders is unobjectionable, because the Act sets a floor and not a ceiling.
Answer
Yes, but at a reduced rate. Section 25FFF of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 governs closure. Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, every workman who has been in continuous service for not less than one year is entitled to notice and compensation as if he had been retrenched, that is one month's notice or wages in lieu, and fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service.
The first proviso contains the concession the problem is aimed at. Where the undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances beyond the control of the employer, the compensation payable to a workman shall not exceed his average pay for three months.
So the workmen of Empire are entitled to compensation, but it is capped at three months' average pay however long their service.
The Explanation to the proviso is essential and cuts down the concession sharply: an undertaking closed down by reason merely of financial difficulties, including the loss of capital or financial losses, or the expiry of a lease or licence, or, in the case of a mine, exhaustion of the minerals, is not deemed to be closed on account of unavoidable circumstances beyond the employer's control.
The senior employees' remedy is Section 25H, re-employment of retrenched workmen. Where a workman has been retrenched and the employer proposes to take any person into employment, he must give an opportunity to the retrenched workmen who are citizens of India to offer themselves for re-employment, and such retrenched workmen who offer themselves shall have preference over other persons.
The obligation is reinforced by Section 25G, the last-come-first-go rule, which requires that in retrenching from a category the employer ordinarily retrench the workman last employed in that category, unless he records reasons for doing otherwise. Preferring juniors on re-employment is the same mischief in reverse.
Procedurally, the senior employees may raise an industrial dispute and, in Maharashtra, may also file a complaint of unfair labour practice before the Labour Court under Section 28 within ninety days, since discharging or discriminating in colourable exercise of the employer's rights falls within Item 1 of Schedule IV of the MRTU and PULP Act.
Answer any four of the following 48 Marks
Answer
For full marks, cover: the text of Section 3(1); that the two phrases are separate and cumulative; what each means; the doctrine of notional extension with Agnes and Bai Valu Raja; the theory of increased risk; the exceptions in the proviso; and the position on death from natural causes.
The statutory foundation. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "If personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter."
The section imposes liability without fault. The employer's negligence is irrelevant, and so, subject to the proviso, is the employee's. The claimant must establish four things: personal injury, caused by accident, arising out of the employment, and in the course of the employment.
The two phrases are separate and both must be satisfied. They are joined by "and", not "or", and the courts have insisted on treating them as distinct enquiries.
"In the course of employment" fixes the time and place. It means the injury occurred while the employee was doing what a man so employed might reasonably do within the time during which he was employed, and at a place where he might reasonably be during that time. It covers not only actual work but reasonable incidents of it: taking a meal on the premises, going to the toilet, and reasonable periods of rest.
"Arising out of employment" fixes the causal connection. It means the injury had its origin in the employment, that there was a causal relationship between the accident and the employment. The classic formulation is that the employment must have exposed the employee to a risk which caused the injury, and that risk must be one to which he would not have been equally exposed apart from the employment.
The doctrine of notional extension. Employment does not begin and end at the factory gate. The Supreme Court in Saurashtra Salt Manufacturing Co. v. Bai Valu Raja (1958) laid down that the employment may be notionally extended both in time and place, so that an accident occurring at a place where the workman was not actually working, but which is in reasonable proximity to the workplace and while he was going to or from it, may still be in the course of employment. On the facts of that case, however, workers drowned crossing a public creek on their way to the salt works, and the Court held the theory did not extend that far.
The doctrine was applied in favour of the claimant in General Manager, B.E.S.T. Undertaking v. Mrs. Agnes (1964). A bus driver returning home in a transport undertaking's own bus, which he was entitled to use as a term of his service, was killed. The Court held the employment extended to that journey: where the employer provides the transport as part of the contract of service, travel in it is within the course of employment.
The theory of increased risk and the peripatetic worker. Where the employment exposes a man to a greater risk than that shared by the general public, an injury from that risk arises out of the employment. In Mackinnon Mackenzie and Co. v. Ibrahim Mahommad Issak (1970) the Supreme Court held that where a seaman disappeared at sea and the cause was unknown, the claimant need only show a reasonable inference that the accident arose out of the employment, because the workman was on the high seas by reason of that employment.
Death from natural causes. A heart attack or stroke at work is compensable only if the employment contributed to it, by strain, stress or exertion beyond the ordinary. If the disease would have struck at that moment wherever the man had been, the accident does not arise out of the employment.
Occupational disease. Section 3(2) deems the contracting of a disease specified in Schedule III to be an injury by accident arising out of and in the course of employment, where the employee has been in continuous service for the prescribed period in an employment specified against that disease. This spares the claimant the impossible task of proving a single accident.
The exceptions. The proviso to Section 3(1) excludes liability in two situations. First, where the disablement does not exceed three days. Second, in respect of an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement, where the injury is caused by an accident directly attributable to (i) the employee having been under the influence of drink or drugs; (ii) wilful disobedience of an order expressly given, or a rule expressly framed, for the purpose of securing the safety of employees; or (iii) wilful removal or disregard by the employee of any safety guard or device which he knew to have been provided for his safety.
Answer
For full marks, cover: a definition and the origin of the phrase; the statutory recognition of the settlement; the pre-conditions; the forms it takes; merits; demerits; and the position under the new codes.
Meaning. Collective bargaining is the process by which the terms and conditions of employment are settled by negotiation between an employer or association of employers and one or more representative organisations of workers, resulting in an agreement binding on both sides for a stated period. The phrase was coined by Sidney and Beatrice Webb in Industrial Democracy (1897). The International Labour Organisation, in its Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949 (No. 98), requires member States to encourage and promote machinery for voluntary negotiation.
It is a bilateral process: the parties themselves make the terms, unlike adjudication, where a third party imposes them.
Statutory recognition in India. There is no Act called the Collective Bargaining Act. The process is recognised indirectly:
Requisite conditions. Collective bargaining cannot work unless the following are present:
Forms. Bargaining may be conjunctive or distributive (each side seeking to gain at the other's cost, as over wages), cooperative or integrative (both sides working out a joint solution in hard times), or productivity bargaining (increases tied to measurable output). It may be at plant, industry or national level.
Merits.
Demerits.
Under the new labour codes. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 addresses the bargaining agent problem directly. Section 14 provides that where only one registered trade union functions in an establishment the employer shall recognise it as the sole negotiating union; where more than one functions, the union with fifty-one per cent or more of the workers on the muster roll is the sole negotiating union; and where none reaches fifty-one per cent, a negotiating council is constituted from unions having not less than twenty per cent, with one representative for each twenty per cent. Recognition is valid for three years, extendable to five.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition in Section 26, the four Schedules and what each contains, illustrative items from Schedules II, III and IV, the prohibition in Section 27, and then the whole of the complaint procedure in Section 28 with the ninety-day limitation and the two courts.
Definition. Section 26 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: "unfair labour practices" means the practices listed in Schedules II, III and IV. Section 27 prohibits them: no employer, union or employee shall engage in any unfair labour practice.
Schedule II. Unfair labour practices on the part of employers. These concern interference with the right to organise. Item 1 is to interfere with, restrain or coerce employees in the exercise of their right to organise, form, join or assist a trade union, including threatening discharge or dismissal if they join a union, threatening a lock-out or closure if a union is organised, and granting wage increases at crucial periods of union organisation to undermine the union. Other items include dominating or interfering with the formation of any union, or contributing financial support to it; establishing employer-sponsored unions; encouraging or discouraging membership by discrimination in regard to hire, tenure or conditions of employment; discharging or dismissing an employee for union activity or for giving evidence; and refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the recognised union (Item 5).
Schedule III. Unfair labour practices on the part of trade unions.
Schedule IV. General unfair labour practices on the part of employers. This is the Schedule most often invoked because it protects the individual employee.
(Schedule I is not a list of unfair labour practices at all: it contains the amendments this Act makes to the Industrial Disputes Act, and is referred to in Section 20(2).)
Procedure for filing a complaint. Section 28.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the object and application of the Act; what standing orders are; the Schedule; submission of the draft; the certification procedure step by step; the fairness jurisdiction; appeal; date of operation; posting; modification under Section 10; and Section 12A on model standing orders.
Object and application. The Act requires employers in industrial establishments to define with sufficient precision the conditions of employment and to make them known to the workmen. Under Section 1(3) it applies to every industrial establishment wherein one hundred or more workmen are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months, and the appropriate Government may by notification apply it to establishments employing fewer.
What standing orders are. Section 2(g): rules relating to the matters set out in the Schedule to the Act. The Schedule lists: classification of workmen as permanent, temporary, apprentices, probationers or badlis; the manner of intimating working hours, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; conditions of and procedure for applying for leave; requirement to enter the premises by certain gates and liability to search; closing and reopening of sections and temporary stoppages of work with the rights and liabilities that follow; termination of employment and the notice to be given; suspension or dismissal for misconduct, and acts or omissions constituting misconduct; means of redress for workmen against unfair treatment or wrongful exactions; and any other matter prescribed.
Certification procedure.
Modification. Section 10.
Related provisions. Section 12A provides that until standing orders are certified, the model standing orders prescribed by the appropriate Government shall be deemed to be adopted in the establishment. Section 13 prescribes penalties for failure to submit the draft or for acting in contravention of certified standing orders, and Section 13(4) provides that no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the second class shall try any such offence. Section 13A gives the Labour Court jurisdiction over questions of the application or interpretation of certified standing orders. Section 13B exempts establishments whose workmen are governed by specified government service rules.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the text of Section 2(j); why the definition matters; the line of cases from Banerji to Safdarjung; Bangalore Water Supply and the triple test; the dominant nature test; what remains excluded; the 1982 amendment that never came into force; and the pending reference in Jai Bir Singh.
The definition. Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: "industry" means any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers and includes any calling, service, employment, handicraft, or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen.
Why it matters. "Industry" is the gateway to the whole Act. There can be no "industrial dispute" under Section 2(k) unless it arises in an industry; without an industry there is no workman, no reference under Section 10, no Labour Court jurisdiction, and no protection against retrenchment or dismissal. Every employer resisting a claim therefore begins here.
The judicial expansion, stage by stage.
What Bangalore Water Supply decided in detail.
What the Court did not do. It expressly invited Parliament to legislate a workable definition. Parliament responded with the Industrial Disputes (Amendment) Act, 1982, which substituted a new Section 2(j) excluding hospitals and dispensaries, educational and research institutions, khadi and village industries, charitable and social service institutions, sovereign functions, and small establishments with fewer than ten workmen. That amendment has never been brought into force, so the judicial test in Bangalore Water Supply continues to govern.
The correctness of Bangalore Water Supply was doubted in State of U.P. v. Jai Bir Singh (2005), where a five-Judge Bench referred the question to a larger Bench, observing that the triple test had swept in institutions Parliament could not have intended. That reference is still pending, so the 1978 decision remains binding law.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition in Section 2(oo) with all four exclusions; the wide judicial meaning; continuous service under Section 25B; the conditions in Section 25F; the procedure in Sections 25G and 25H; the Chapter VB requirements in Section 25N; the consequence of non-compliance; and the position under the new Code.
Definition. Section 2(oo): "retrenchment" means the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action, but does not include:
The wide meaning. In State Bank of India v. N. Sundara Money (1976) and conclusively in Punjab Land Development and Reclamation Corporation v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court (1990), a five-Judge Bench held that the words "for any reason whatsoever" mean what they say: retrenchment covers every termination other than the four excluded categories, and is not confined to discharge of surplus labour. So termination for loss of confidence, for unsatisfactory work short of misconduct, or for no stated reason at all, is retrenchment and attracts Section 25F.
Continuous service. Section 25B. A workman is in continuous service for one year if, during the preceding twelve calendar months, he has actually worked for not less than 240 days (or 190 days in a mine below ground). Days on which he was laid off, on leave with wages, absent due to a work-related accident, or, for a female workman, on maternity leave up to twelve weeks, are counted.
Conditions precedent. Section 25F. No workman employed in any industry who has been in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until:
Illustration. A workman with seven years and eight months of continuous service, drawing average pay of Rs. 18,000 per month, is retrenched. The part year exceeds six months, so it counts as a completed year: eight years. Fifteen days' average pay is Rs. 9,000. Compensation is 8 x Rs. 9,000 = Rs. 72,000, plus one month's notice or Rs. 18,000 in lieu.
Procedure. Section 25G, last come first go. Where a workman belonging to a particular category is to be retrenched, the employer shall ordinarily retrench the workman who was the last person employed in that category, unless for reasons to be recorded he retrenches another. The rule protects seniority and, equally, protects against victimisation dressed up as retrenchment.
Re-employment. Section 25H. Where any workman is retrenched and the employer proposes to take persons into employment, he shall give an opportunity to the retrenched workmen who are citizens of India to offer themselves for re-employment, and they shall have preference over other persons.
Larger establishments. Chapter VB. For an industrial establishment (not seasonal or intermittent) in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding twelve months, Section 25N applies. No such workman in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until he has been given three months' notice in writing indicating the reasons, or wages in lieu, and the prior permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application stating the reasons. The Government must decide after enquiry and after hearing the parties; its order is final for one year and is subject to review. Compensation is fifteen days' average pay for every completed year.
Effect of non-compliance. Section 25F is mandatory and its conditions are conditions precedent. Retrenchment in breach of it is void ab initio, and the workman is entitled to reinstatement, ordinarily with continuity of service, and to such back wages as the Labour Court thinks fit. Later decisions have made back wages discretionary rather than automatic, requiring the workman to plead and prove he was not gainfully employed in the interval.
Under the new law. Section 70 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 reproduces Section 25F almost word for word, with the same one month's notice, fifteen days' average pay and notice to the Government. The threshold for the prior-permission regime rises from one hundred to three hundred workers under Section 77, and Section 83 creates a worker re-skilling fund to which the employer contributes fifteen days' wages for every retrenched worker, credited to the worker's account within forty-five days of retrenchment.
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This volume prints the 2017-18 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
10 August 2026.
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