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BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5 Labour Laws 2017-18 Question Paper with Solutions

Mumbai University Solved Question Papers

Labour Laws

Previous Year Question Paper with Solution

BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5

2017-18 Examination

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Mumbai

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First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.

Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.

Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.

munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.

The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.

The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2017-18 examination.

This subject is examined on two bodies of law at once, and each answer here is written on the statute its own question names. The papers under codes 75801, 75701 and 75811 are answered on the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the Maharashtra Recognition of Trade Unions and Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act, 1971, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. The papers under code 67121, and the 2024-25 ATKT paper for 60 marks, are answered on the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 and the Code on Wages, 2019. The four Codes were brought into force on 21 November 2025, but the Industrial Relations Code repeals the older central Acts only to the extent named in each commencement notification, and it does not repeal the Maharashtra Act, which is State legislation. Both bodies of law are therefore still examinable, and where a provision has a counterpart in the other, the answer names it and says which is which.

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The Paper as Set

The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2017-18 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.

Duration 3 hours  ·  Total marks 100  ·  25 questions answered

Instructions printed on the paper

  • Please check whether you have got the right question paper.

How to use this volume

Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.

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SECTION I

Answer in one or two sentences

All questions compulsory · 20 Marks

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1.Define 'Appropriate Government' under I.D. Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 2(a) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines "appropriate Government" by reference to who runs the industry, not by reference to where the dispute arises.

The Central Government is the appropriate Government for an industrial dispute concerning any industry carried on by or under the authority of the Central Government, or by a railway company, or concerning a controlled industry specified by the Central Government, and for the establishments named in the section: banking and insurance companies, mines, oil fields, cantonment boards, major ports, and the statutory corporations listed there.

In relation to any other industrial dispute, the appropriate Government is the State Government.

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2.To which industrial establishment M.R.T.U. & P.U.L.P. Act, 1971 is applicable?[2]

Answer

The Act extends to the whole of the State of Maharashtra. Under Section 2 it applies to the industries to which the Bombay Industrial Relations Act, 1946 applies, and to any industry as defined in Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 in relation to which the State Government is the appropriate Government.

For the recognition machinery there is a separate threshold. Section 10 provides that Chapter III applies to every undertaking wherein fifty or more employees are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months. The State Government may, on sixty days' notice, extend the Chapter to undertakings employing fewer than fifty.

If the number falls below fifty continuously for one year, Chapter III ceases to apply to that undertaking.

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3.What is the definition of 'Wages' under the E.C. Act 1923?[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(m) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "wages" includes any privilege or benefit which is capable of being estimated in money, other than a travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession, a contribution paid by the employer towards any pension or provident fund, and a sum paid to the employee to cover any special expenses entailed on him by the nature of his employment.

So the definition is inclusive and wide: dearness allowance, overtime, and the money value of free food or free quarters are wages, while the three excluded heads are not.

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4.What is the rate of subsistence allowance payable to the workman under I.E. (S.O.) Act, 1946?[2]

Answer

Section 10A of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 provides that where a workman is suspended pending investigation or inquiry into charges of misconduct, the employer must pay him subsistence allowance at:

  1. Fifty per cent of the wages he was entitled to immediately preceding the date of suspension, for the first ninety days of suspension; and
  2. Seventy-five per cent of such wages for the remaining period, if the delay in completing the disciplinary proceedings is not directly attributable to the conduct of the workman.

Any dispute about the amount is decided by the Labour Court, whose decision is final.

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5.When the 'National Industrial Tribunal' may be constituted under I.D. Act, 1947?[2]

Answer

Under Section 7B, the Central Government alone may, by notification, constitute one or more National Industrial Tribunals for the adjudication of industrial disputes which, in its opinion,

  1. involve questions of national importance; or
  2. are of such a nature that industrial establishments situated in more than one State are likely to be interested in, or affected by, the dispute.

A National Tribunal consists of one person only, who must be, or have been, a Judge of a High Court. The Central Government may appoint up to two assessors to advise it.

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6.Define 'Total Disablement' under E.C. Act, 1923.[2]

Answer

Section 2(1)(l): "total disablement" means such disablement, whether of a temporary or permanent nature, as incapacitates an employee for all work which he was capable of performing at the time of the accident resulting in such disablement.

The proviso adds a deeming rule: permanent total disablement is deemed to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries specified in Part II where the aggregate percentage of loss of earning capacity, as specified against those injuries, amounts to one hundred per cent or more.

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7.State any two grounds for declaring lay-off.[2]

Answer

"Lay-off" is defined in Section 2(kkk) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 as the failure, refusal or inability of an employer to give employment to a workman whose name is on the muster rolls and who has not been retrenched, on account of:

  1. shortage of coal, power or raw materials;
  2. the accumulation of stocks;
  3. the break-down of machinery;
  4. natural calamity; or
  5. any other connected reason.

Any two of these are grounds for lay-off.

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8.State any two instances of illegal lock-out under M.R.T.U. & P.U.L.P. Act, 1971[2]

Answer

Section 24(2) of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 defines an illegal lock-out. Two instances are:

  1. A lock-out commenced or continued without giving the employees notice of lock-out in the prescribed form, or within fourteen days of the giving of such notice.
  2. A lock-out commenced or continued during the pendency of conciliation proceedings under the Bombay Act or the central Act, and for seven days after the conclusion of those proceedings, in respect of matters covered by the notice of lock-out.

A third instance is a lock-out declared during any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any matter covered by that settlement or award.

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9.When and who can constitute the 'Works Committee' under I.D. Act, 1947.[2]

Answer

Section 3(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: in the case of any industrial establishment in which one hundred or more workmen are employed, or have been employed on any day in the preceding twelve months, the appropriate Government may, by general or special order, require the employer to constitute a Works Committee.

The Committee consists of representatives of employers and workmen in equal number, and the workmen's representatives are chosen in consultation with the registered trade union, if any. Its duty is to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employer and the workmen and, to that end, to comment upon matters of common interest and to compose any material difference of opinion.

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10.Elucidate when can the certified Standing Orders be modified?[2]

Answer

Section 10 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946. Standing orders finally certified shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of six months from the date on which they, or the last modification of them, came into operation, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen or a trade union or other representative body of the workmen.

After that period, the employer or any workman or a trade union or other representative body may apply to the Certifying Officer to have the standing orders modified, and the application must be accompanied by copies of the modifications proposed. Where the modification is by agreement, a certified copy of the agreement is filed with the application.

The same procedure as for original certification then applies.

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SECTION II

Write short notes on any four of the following 20 Marks

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11.Notice of change[5]

Answer

Section 9A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. No employer who proposes to effect any change in the conditions of service applicable to any workman in respect of any matter specified in the Fourth Schedule shall effect that change:

  1. without giving to the workmen likely to be affected notice in the prescribed manner of the nature of the change proposed; and
  2. within twenty-one days of giving such notice.

Matters in the Fourth Schedule include wages and the manner of their payment; contribution to provident fund or gratuity; compensatory and other allowances; hours of work and rest intervals; leave with wages and holidays; starting, alteration or discontinuance of shift working; classification by grades; withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege; introduction of new rules of discipline; rationalisation, standardisation or improvement of plant or technique likely to lead to retrenchment; and any increase or reduction in the number of persons employed in any department.

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Section 9B allows the appropriate Government, in the public interest or in an emergency, to exempt an employer from Section 9A by notification.

Section 33 carries a related but distinct prohibition: during the pendency of conciliation or adjudication proceedings, conditions of service connected with the dispute may not be altered to the workman's prejudice without the authority's express permission.

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12.Rights of recognized trade union under M.R.T.U. & P.U.L.P. Act, 1971[5]

Answer

Section 20 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971. Authorised officers, office staff and members of a recognised union have the right:

  1. to collect sums payable by members to the union on the premises where wages are paid;
  2. to put up a notice board on the premises of the undertaking and affix notices on it;
  3. for the prevention or settlement of an industrial dispute, to hold discussions on the premises with employees who are members, without interfering with the working of the undertaking; to meet and discuss with the employer the grievances of employees; and to inspect any place in the undertaking where an employee is employed;
  4. to appear on behalf of any employee in any domestic or departmental inquiry held by the employer.

Section 20(2) adds the two rights that make recognition worth having:

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  1. the recognised union alone may appoint nominees to represent workmen on the Works Committee under Section 3 of the Industrial Disputes Act; and
  2. no employee may appear or be represented in any proceeding under the Industrial Disputes Act except through the recognised union, and the decision binds all employees in the undertaking. This does not apply to a proceeding about the legality or propriety of dismissal, discharge, removal, retrenchment, termination or suspension.

Section 21 adds that in proceedings about the unfair labour practices in items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV, an employee may appear only through the recognised union, unless there is none.

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13.Employee under E.C. Act, 1923[5]

Answer

Section 2(1)(dd) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. "Employee" means a person, who is:

  1. a railway servant as defined in the Railways Act, 1989, not permanently employed in any administrative, district or sub-divisional office of a railway and not employed in any capacity specified in Schedule II;
  2. a master, seaman or other member of the crew of a ship, a captain or other member of the crew of an aircraft, a person recruited as driver, helper, mechanic, cleaner or in any other capacity in connection with a motor vehicle, or a person recruited for work abroad by a company, and who is employed outside India in any such capacity as is specified in Schedule II; or
  3. employed in any such capacity as is specified in Schedule II,

whether the contract of employment was made before or after the passing of the Act and whether it is express or implied, oral or in writing. It excludes a person whose employment is of a casual nature and who is employed otherwise than for the purposes of the employer's trade or business, and members of the Armed Forces of the Union.

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Where an employee has died, "employee" includes his dependants or any of them.

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14.Triple test under I.D. Act, 1947[5]

Answer

The triple test is the test for "industry" under Section 2(j) laid down by a seven-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978). An activity is an industry where there is:

  1. systematic activity;
  2. organised by cooperation between employer and employee; and
  3. for the production and/or distribution of goods and services calculated to satisfy human wants and wishes, not spiritual or religious wants, and not wants that are supplied free.

The Court added the dominant nature test: where a complex of activities is carried on, some of which qualify and some do not, the predominant nature of the undertaking decides, and the whole undertaking is an industry.

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Excluded are sovereign functions strictly understood, that is the inalienable functions of the State such as defence, the administration of justice, and law and order; but welfare and economic activities undertaken by government departments are not excluded merely because government carries them on. Also outside are institutions run on a purely charitable and voluntary basis without employed workers, and clubs or professional relationships such as a solicitor's firm where the personal skill of the professional is dominant.

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15.Certifying officer under I.E. (S.O.) Act, 1946[5]

Answer

Section 2(c) of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 defines "Certifying Officer" as a Labour Commissioner or a Regional Labour Commissioner, and any other officer appointed by the appropriate Government, by notification, to perform the functions of a Certifying Officer under the Act.

His functions are:

  1. to receive the draft standing orders submitted by the employer under Section 3 within six months of the Act becoming applicable to the establishment;
  2. to certify them under Section 5, after forwarding a copy to the trade union or the workmen, allowing fifteen days to file objections, hearing the parties, and making such modifications as are necessary to render the draft certifiable;
  3. to adjudicate upon the fairness or reasonableness of any provision, a power expressly conferred by Section 4 as amended in 1956;
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  1. to authenticate the certified standing orders and send authenticated copies to the parties within seven days;
  2. to deal with modification applications under Section 10 and to maintain the register of standing orders under Section 8.

Section 11 gives him the powers of a civil court to receive evidence, administer oaths, enforce the attendance of witnesses and compel the discovery and production of documents.

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16.Permanent disability[5]

Answer

Under the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923, permanent disablement is of two kinds.

Permanent total disablement. Under Section 2(1)(l) read with its proviso, disablement which incapacitates an employee for all work he was capable of performing at the time of the accident, and which is permanent. It is deemed to result from every injury specified in Part I of Schedule I, or from any combination of injuries in Part II where the aggregate loss of earning capacity is one hundred per cent or more. Part I examples: loss of both hands, loss of sight to such an extent as to render the employee unable to perform any work for which eyesight is essential, very severe facial disfigurement, absolute deafness, amputation of an arm through the shoulder joint.

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Permanent partial disablement. Under Section 2(1)(g), disablement of a permanent nature which reduces the earning capacity of the employee in every employment which he was capable of undertaking at the time of the accident. Every injury in Part II of Schedule I is deemed to result in permanent partial disablement, and the Schedule assigns each a percentage of loss of earning capacity: for example loss of a thumb, twenty-five per cent; loss of one eye without complications, forty per cent; amputation of a leg below the knee, fifty per cent.

Compensation under Section 4. For permanent total disablement, an amount equal to sixty per cent of the monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor in Schedule IV, or Rs. 1,40,000, whichever is more. For permanent partial disablement from a Schedule I injury, such percentage of the compensation payable for permanent total disablement as is the percentage of loss of earning capacity specified for that injury; for an injury not in the Schedule, such percentage as is proportionate to the loss of earning capacity as assessed by a qualified medical practitioner.

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SECTION III

Attempt any two 12 Marks

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17.The Industrial court granted recognition to the Indian worker's Association as a recognized union but Bhartiya Kamgar Sena has more membership than the Indian workers Association.[6]

  • (a) What remedy is available to Bhartiya Kamgar Sena?
  • (b) Kamgar Utkarsha Sabha a recognized union, assisted illegal strike in ABC undertaking & applied for seeking recognition in XYZ undertaking. Will Kamgar Utkarsh Sabha get recognition in XYZ undertaking. Why?

Answer

(a) What remedy is available to Bhartiya Kamgar Sena?

Its remedy is an application under Section 14 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 for recognition of another union in place of the recognised union.

The conditions are:

  1. the applicant union must claim that it has the largest membership of employees employed in the undertaking;
  2. a period of two years must have elapsed since the date of registration of the existing recognised union;
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  1. its membership must have been, during the whole of the six calendar months immediately preceding the month of application, larger than the membership of the recognised union; and
  2. it must satisfy the conditions in Section 11 (thirty per cent membership for six months) and comply with Section 19.

On such an application the Industrial Court calls upon the recognised union to show cause within thirty days, displays notice on the notice board of the undertaking, holds an enquiry, and if satisfied, recognises the applicant union in place of the recognised union and issues a certificate.

If two years have not elapsed, Bhartiya Kamgar Sena must wait. In the meantime, if the Indian Workers' Association attracts any of the grounds in Section 13, for example its membership falls below the minimum for six continuous months, or it is not conducted bona fide in the interests of employees, an application for cancellation of its recognition lies.

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(b) Kamgar Utkarsha Sabha a recognized union, assisted illegal strike in ABC undertaking & applied for seeking recognition in XYZ undertaking. Will Kamgar Utkarsh Sabha get recognition in XYZ undertaking. Why?

No. Section 12(6) provides that the Industrial Court shall not recognise any union if, at any time within six months immediately preceding the date of the application for recognition, the union has instigated, aided or assisted the commencement or continuation of a strike which is deemed to be illegal under the Act.

The disqualification attaches to the union, not to the undertaking. The section says "any union" and "a strike", and does not require the illegal strike to have taken place in the undertaking where recognition is sought. So the assistance given to the illegal strike in ABC undertaking bars recognition in XYZ undertaking, provided it falls within the six months preceding the application.

Two qualifications. First, the strike must be illegal within the meaning of Section 24(1). If the ABC strike satisfied the notice, ballot and cooling-off requirements it was legal, and Section 12(6) is not attracted at all. Second, the bar is time-limited: once six clean months have passed since the assistance, a fresh application is maintainable.

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18.PQR industrial undertaking is purchased by another employer.[6]

  • (a) The standing orders which are applicable to PQR Industrial undertaking will continue to be applicable or cease to be operative.
  • (b) In an industrial undertaking, the standing orders state 3 months probation period. But in appointment letter of a employee it was 6 months. Is it possible for parties to enter into a contract? Why?

Answer

(a) The standing orders which are applicable to PQR Industrial undertaking will continue to be applicable or cease to be operative.

They continue to be applicable. Certified standing orders are not a contract personal to the employer who obtained certification; they are the statutory conditions of service of the establishment, certified under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and operating under Section 7 from the date fixed there.

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A transfer of ownership does not touch them. They remain in force until they are modified under Section 10, which cannot be done, except by agreement, until six months have elapsed from the date they or their last modification came into operation, and then only on an application to the Certifying Officer decided by the same procedure as original certification.

The new employer therefore steps into the establishment bound by the existing certified standing orders. If it wishes to change them it must apply, and the workmen have the right to be heard.

(b) In an industrial undertaking, the standing orders state 3 months probation period. But in appointment letter of a employee it was 6 months. Is it possible for parties to enter into a contract? Why?

No, not to the employee's detriment. Certified standing orders prevail over an inconsistent individual contract. They have statutory force: they are certified by a public authority after notice, objection and hearing, they bind the whole establishment, and the Supreme Court has repeatedly held that conditions so certified become part of the terms of employment of every workman and cannot be varied by private bargain.

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Two supporting points. Section 4 requires the Certifying Officer to adjudicate on the fairness or reasonableness of the provisions, so the certified term already carries a finding that it is fair. Section 10 prescribes the only route to change, and a private appointment letter is not that route; Section 36 of the Act makes oral evidence in contradiction of standing orders inadmissible.

So the six-month clause in the appointment letter is inoperative to the extent it conflicts, and the employee's probation ends at three months. The one qualification is that a contract more favourable than the standing orders is unobjectionable, because the Act sets a floor and not a ceiling.

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19.Empire Industrial undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances beyond the control of the employer.[6]

  • (a) Whether the workmen are entitled for compensation? Explain.
  • (b) In the above mentioned situation employer is planning to restart the closed industry but refused to employ senior employees & appointed junior employees. What remedy is available to senior employee?

Answer

(a) Whether the workmen are entitled for compensation? Explain.

Yes, but at a reduced rate. Section 25FFF of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 governs closure. Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, every workman who has been in continuous service for not less than one year is entitled to notice and compensation as if he had been retrenched, that is one month's notice or wages in lieu, and fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service.

The first proviso contains the concession the problem is aimed at. Where the undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances beyond the control of the employer, the compensation payable to a workman shall not exceed his average pay for three months.

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So the workmen of Empire are entitled to compensation, but it is capped at three months' average pay however long their service.

The Explanation to the proviso is essential and cuts down the concession sharply: an undertaking closed down by reason merely of financial difficulties, including the loss of capital or financial losses, or the expiry of a lease or licence, or, in the case of a mine, exhaustion of the minerals, is not deemed to be closed on account of unavoidable circumstances beyond the employer's control.

(b) In the above mentioned situation employer is planning to restart the closed industry but refused to employ senior employees & appointed junior employees. What remedy is available to senior employee?

The senior employees' remedy is Section 25H, re-employment of retrenched workmen. Where a workman has been retrenched and the employer proposes to take any person into employment, he must give an opportunity to the retrenched workmen who are citizens of India to offer themselves for re-employment, and such retrenched workmen who offer themselves shall have preference over other persons.

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The obligation is reinforced by Section 25G, the last-come-first-go rule, which requires that in retrenching from a category the employer ordinarily retrench the workman last employed in that category, unless he records reasons for doing otherwise. Preferring juniors on re-employment is the same mischief in reverse.

Procedurally, the senior employees may raise an industrial dispute and, in Maharashtra, may also file a complaint of unfair labour practice before the Labour Court under Section 28 within ninety days, since discharging or discriminating in colourable exercise of the employer's rights falls within Item 1 of Schedule IV of the MRTU and PULP Act.

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SECTION IV

Answer any four of the following 48 Marks

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20.Explain the concept of 'arising out of' and 'in the course of employment' as contemplated in the Employees Compensation Act, 1923.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the text of Section 3(1); that the two phrases are separate and cumulative; what each means; the doctrine of notional extension with Agnes and Bai Valu Raja; the theory of increased risk; the exceptions in the proviso; and the position on death from natural causes.

The statutory foundation. Section 3(1) of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923: "If personal injury is caused to an employee by accident arising out of and in the course of his employment, his employer shall be liable to pay compensation in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter."

The section imposes liability without fault. The employer's negligence is irrelevant, and so, subject to the proviso, is the employee's. The claimant must establish four things: personal injury, caused by accident, arising out of the employment, and in the course of the employment.

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The two phrases are separate and both must be satisfied. They are joined by "and", not "or", and the courts have insisted on treating them as distinct enquiries.

"In the course of employment" fixes the time and place. It means the injury occurred while the employee was doing what a man so employed might reasonably do within the time during which he was employed, and at a place where he might reasonably be during that time. It covers not only actual work but reasonable incidents of it: taking a meal on the premises, going to the toilet, and reasonable periods of rest.

"Arising out of employment" fixes the causal connection. It means the injury had its origin in the employment, that there was a causal relationship between the accident and the employment. The classic formulation is that the employment must have exposed the employee to a risk which caused the injury, and that risk must be one to which he would not have been equally exposed apart from the employment.

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The doctrine of notional extension. Employment does not begin and end at the factory gate. The Supreme Court in Saurashtra Salt Manufacturing Co. v. Bai Valu Raja (1958) laid down that the employment may be notionally extended both in time and place, so that an accident occurring at a place where the workman was not actually working, but which is in reasonable proximity to the workplace and while he was going to or from it, may still be in the course of employment. On the facts of that case, however, workers drowned crossing a public creek on their way to the salt works, and the Court held the theory did not extend that far.

The doctrine was applied in favour of the claimant in General Manager, B.E.S.T. Undertaking v. Mrs. Agnes (1964). A bus driver returning home in a transport undertaking's own bus, which he was entitled to use as a term of his service, was killed. The Court held the employment extended to that journey: where the employer provides the transport as part of the contract of service, travel in it is within the course of employment.

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The theory of increased risk and the peripatetic worker. Where the employment exposes a man to a greater risk than that shared by the general public, an injury from that risk arises out of the employment. In Mackinnon Mackenzie and Co. v. Ibrahim Mahommad Issak (1970) the Supreme Court held that where a seaman disappeared at sea and the cause was unknown, the claimant need only show a reasonable inference that the accident arose out of the employment, because the workman was on the high seas by reason of that employment.

Death from natural causes. A heart attack or stroke at work is compensable only if the employment contributed to it, by strain, stress or exertion beyond the ordinary. If the disease would have struck at that moment wherever the man had been, the accident does not arise out of the employment.

Occupational disease. Section 3(2) deems the contracting of a disease specified in Schedule III to be an injury by accident arising out of and in the course of employment, where the employee has been in continuous service for the prescribed period in an employment specified against that disease. This spares the claimant the impossible task of proving a single accident.

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The exceptions. The proviso to Section 3(1) excludes liability in two situations. First, where the disablement does not exceed three days. Second, in respect of an injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement, where the injury is caused by an accident directly attributable to (i) the employee having been under the influence of drink or drugs; (ii) wilful disobedience of an order expressly given, or a rule expressly framed, for the purpose of securing the safety of employees; or (iii) wilful removal or disregard by the employee of any safety guard or device which he knew to have been provided for his safety.

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21.What is Collective Bargaining? Explain the requisite conditions along with its merits & demerits?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: a definition and the origin of the phrase; the statutory recognition of the settlement; the pre-conditions; the forms it takes; merits; demerits; and the position under the new codes.

Meaning. Collective bargaining is the process by which the terms and conditions of employment are settled by negotiation between an employer or association of employers and one or more representative organisations of workers, resulting in an agreement binding on both sides for a stated period. The phrase was coined by Sidney and Beatrice Webb in Industrial Democracy (1897). The International Labour Organisation, in its Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949 (No. 98), requires member States to encourage and promote machinery for voluntary negotiation.

It is a bilateral process: the parties themselves make the terms, unlike adjudication, where a third party imposes them.

Statutory recognition in India. There is no Act called the Collective Bargaining Act. The process is recognised indirectly:

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  1. Section 18 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 gives a settlement arrived at in the course of conciliation proceedings binding force on all parties to the dispute, on all other parties summoned, and on all persons employed in the establishment on the date of the dispute and all who join afterwards. A settlement reached outside conciliation binds only the parties to it.
  2. Section 19 fixes the period of operation: a settlement is binding for the period agreed, or in default for six months from the date the memorandum is signed, and continues until two months after either party gives notice to terminate.
  3. Section 2(p) defines "settlement", and Section 12 obliges the conciliation officer to promote a settlement.
  4. In Maharashtra, the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971 supplies the missing element by creating a single recognised union with exclusive rights under Sections 20 and 21, and by making a recognised union's refusal to bargain collectively in good faith an unfair labour practice under Item 3 of Schedule III. The corresponding refusal by an employer to bargain with the recognised union is an unfair labour practice under Item 5 of Schedule II.

Requisite conditions. Collective bargaining cannot work unless the following are present:

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  1. A strong, representative and recognised union, so that the employer knows with whom to bargain and the agreement can bind the workforce.
  2. Freedom of association and the absence of victimisation of union office bearers.
  3. Willingness to negotiate in good faith on both sides, with authority in the negotiators to conclude an agreement.
  4. Mutual recognition and acceptance of the other side's right to exist and to differ.
  5. Full and accurate information, so that demands are framed against the real financial position.
  6. A defined bargaining unit and an agreed procedure and agenda.
  7. Willingness to give and take, and to implement what has been agreed.
  8. A legal framework that makes the agreement enforceable.

Forms. Bargaining may be conjunctive or distributive (each side seeking to gain at the other's cost, as over wages), cooperative or integrative (both sides working out a joint solution in hard times), or productivity bargaining (increases tied to measurable output). It may be at plant, industry or national level.

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Merits.

  1. It produces terms the parties have themselves made, so compliance is better than with an imposed award.
  2. It is flexible and quick compared with adjudication, and far cheaper.
  3. It builds industrial democracy, giving workers a voice in the terms that govern their working lives.
  4. It reduces strikes and lock-outs by providing a standing channel for grievances.
  5. It creates a continuing relationship, so that the next dispute begins from an established procedure.
  6. It relieves the State and the courts of an enormous burden of routine dispute settlement.

Demerits.

  1. It depends on rough equality of bargaining strength; where the union is weak or the workforce unorganised, the "bargain" is dictation.
  2. Multiplicity of unions and inter-union rivalry can make it impossible to identify a bargaining agent.
  3. It can produce inflationary settlements in strong industries while leaving the unorganised sector untouched, widening inequality.
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  1. Bargaining may be conducted under the threat of a strike or lock-out, with heavy cost to production and to the public.
  2. Agreements are often reached at the cost of outsiders, such as contract labour and casual workers, who are not at the table.
  3. Enforcement depends on the good faith of the parties, and a settlement outside conciliation binds only the signatories.

Under the new labour codes. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 addresses the bargaining agent problem directly. Section 14 provides that where only one registered trade union functions in an establishment the employer shall recognise it as the sole negotiating union; where more than one functions, the union with fifty-one per cent or more of the workers on the muster roll is the sole negotiating union; and where none reaches fifty-one per cent, a negotiating council is constituted from unions having not less than twenty per cent, with one representative for each twenty per cent. Recognition is valid for three years, extendable to five.

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22.Discuss the 'Unfair Labour Practices' on the part of employer and trade union. Explain the procedure for filing complaint against unfair Labour practices. Under M.R.T.U. & P.U.L.P. Act, 1971.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition in Section 26, the four Schedules and what each contains, illustrative items from Schedules II, III and IV, the prohibition in Section 27, and then the whole of the complaint procedure in Section 28 with the ninety-day limitation and the two courts.

Definition. Section 26 of the MRTU and PULP Act, 1971: "unfair labour practices" means the practices listed in Schedules II, III and IV. Section 27 prohibits them: no employer, union or employee shall engage in any unfair labour practice.

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Schedule II. Unfair labour practices on the part of employers. These concern interference with the right to organise. Item 1 is to interfere with, restrain or coerce employees in the exercise of their right to organise, form, join or assist a trade union, including threatening discharge or dismissal if they join a union, threatening a lock-out or closure if a union is organised, and granting wage increases at crucial periods of union organisation to undermine the union. Other items include dominating or interfering with the formation of any union, or contributing financial support to it; establishing employer-sponsored unions; encouraging or discouraging membership by discrimination in regard to hire, tenure or conditions of employment; discharging or dismissing an employee for union activity or for giving evidence; and refusing to bargain collectively in good faith with the recognised union (Item 5).

Schedule III. Unfair labour practices on the part of trade unions.

  1. To advise, actively support or instigate any strike deemed illegal under the Act.
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  1. To coerce employees in the exercise of their right to self-organisation, including picketing so as to physically debar non-striking employees from entering the workplace, and acts of force, violence or intimidation against non-striking employees or managerial staff.
  2. For a recognised union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer.
  3. To indulge in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative.
  4. To stage, encourage or instigate coercive actions such as wilful "go slow", squatting on the work premises after working hours, or "gherao" of managerial or other staff.
  5. To stage demonstrations at the residences of employers or managerial staff.

Schedule IV. General unfair labour practices on the part of employers. This is the Schedule most often invoked because it protects the individual employee.

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  1. To discharge or dismiss employees by way of victimisation; not in good faith but in colourable exercise of the employer's rights; by falsely implicating an employee in a criminal case on false or concocted evidence; for patently false reasons; on untrue or trumped-up allegations of absence without leave; or in utter disregard of the principles of natural justice.
  2. To abolish work of a regular nature and give it to contractors as a measure of breaking a strike.
  3. To transfer an employee mala fide from one place to another under the guise of following management policy.
  4. To insist that employees who were on a legal strike sign a good conduct bond as a pre-condition to resuming work.
  5. To show favouritism or partiality to one set of workers regardless of merit.
  6. To employ employees as badlis, casuals or temporaries and continue them as such for years with the object of depriving them of the status and privileges of permanent employees.
  7. To discharge or discriminate against an employee for filing charges or testifying against the employer.
  8. To recruit employees during a strike which is not an illegal strike.
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  1. Failure to implement an award, settlement or agreement.
  2. To indulge in acts of force or violence.

(Schedule I is not a list of unfair labour practices at all: it contains the amendments this Act makes to the Industrial Disputes Act, and is referred to in Section 20(2).)

Procedure for filing a complaint. Section 28.

  1. Who may complain. Any union, any employee, any employer, or any Investigating Officer.
  2. Limitation. Within ninety days of the occurrence of the unfair labour practice. The Court may entertain a complaint filed later if good and sufficient reasons are shown for the delay.
  3. Which court. The Labour Court under Section 7 deals with complaints relating to unfair labour practices described in Item 1 of Schedule IV (discharge and dismissal cases), and tries offences under the Act. All other unfair labour practices go to the Industrial Court under Section 5.
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  1. Investigation. On receipt of a complaint the Court may direct the Investigating Officer to investigate and report within a specified time. The Officer may visit the undertaking, make enquiries, and attempt to settle the complaint. He submits a report setting out the facts and the efforts made at settlement, and a copy is supplied to the parties on payment of the prescribed fee.
  2. Hearing and decision. If the complaint has not been settled satisfactorily and the circumstances require further consideration, the Court proceeds to consider it and gives its decision, as far as possible within six months of receipt of the complaint.
  3. Order. The decision is in writing, in the form of an order, and is final. It shall not be called in question in any civil or criminal court.
  4. Representation. In complaints relating to items 2 and 6 of Schedule IV, an employee may appear only through the recognised union under Section 21, unless there is no recognised union.
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  1. Powers of the Court. Section 30 empowers the Industrial and Labour Courts to direct the person to cease and desist, to take affirmative action including reinstatement with or without back wages, and to grant interim relief pending the final decision.
  2. Recovery. Section 50 allows an employee to whom money is due under such an order to apply to the Court for a certificate, on which the amount is recovered as arrears of land revenue.
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23.Explain in detail the procedure for certification & modification of Standing Orders under I.E. (S.O.) Act, 1946.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the object and application of the Act; what standing orders are; the Schedule; submission of the draft; the certification procedure step by step; the fairness jurisdiction; appeal; date of operation; posting; modification under Section 10; and Section 12A on model standing orders.

Object and application. The Act requires employers in industrial establishments to define with sufficient precision the conditions of employment and to make them known to the workmen. Under Section 1(3) it applies to every industrial establishment wherein one hundred or more workmen are employed, or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months, and the appropriate Government may by notification apply it to establishments employing fewer.

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What standing orders are. Section 2(g): rules relating to the matters set out in the Schedule to the Act. The Schedule lists: classification of workmen as permanent, temporary, apprentices, probationers or badlis; the manner of intimating working hours, holidays, pay days and wage rates; shift working; attendance and late coming; conditions of and procedure for applying for leave; requirement to enter the premises by certain gates and liability to search; closing and reopening of sections and temporary stoppages of work with the rights and liabilities that follow; termination of employment and the notice to be given; suspension or dismissal for misconduct, and acts or omissions constituting misconduct; means of redress for workmen against unfair treatment or wrongful exactions; and any other matter prescribed.

Certification procedure.

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  1. Submission of draft. Section 3(1). Within six months from the date on which the Act becomes applicable to an industrial establishment, the employer shall submit to the Certifying Officer five copies of the draft standing orders proposed for adoption. The draft must, under Section 3(2), make provision for every matter set out in the Schedule applicable to the establishment, and shall be, so far as practicable, in conformity with the model standing orders. It must be accompanied by a statement giving prescribed particulars of the workmen employed, including the name of the trade union to which they belong.
  2. Conditions for certification. Section 4. Standing orders shall be certifiable if (a) provision is made for every matter set out in the Schedule which is applicable to the establishment, and (b) they are otherwise in conformity with the provisions of the Act. It shall be the function of the Certifying Officer or appellate authority to adjudicate upon the fairness or reasonableness of the provisions of any standing orders. This second limb was added by the amendment of 1956; before it the authority had no power to consider fairness.
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  1. Procedure. Section 5. On receipt of the draft the Certifying Officer shall forward a copy to the trade union, if any, or where there is no such union, to the workmen in the prescribed manner, together with a notice requiring objections, if any, to be submitted within fifteen days of receipt of the notice. After giving the employer and the trade union or the workmen's representatives an opportunity of being heard, the Certifying Officer shall decide whether any modification or addition is necessary to render the draft certifiable, and shall make an order in writing accordingly. He then certifies the standing orders and, within seven days, sends authenticated copies to the employer and to the trade union or the workmen's representatives.
  2. Appeals. Section 6. Any employer, workman, trade union or other prescribed representative aggrieved by the order may appeal to the appellate authority within thirty days. The appellate authority, whose decision is final, shall confirm the standing orders either as certified or after amendment, and shall within seven days send copies of its order to the parties and to the Certifying Officer, who shall amend the register accordingly.
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  1. Date of operation. Section 7. Standing orders come into operation on the expiry of thirty days from the date on which authenticated copies are sent under Section 5, or where an appeal is preferred, on the expiry of seven days from the date on which copies of the appellate order are sent.
  2. Register and availability. Section 8 requires the Certifying Officer to maintain a register of certified standing orders and to supply copies on payment. Section 9 requires the text to be prominently posted by the employer in English and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen, on special boards at or near the entrance and in all departments where the workmen are employed.

Modification. Section 10.

  1. Standing orders finally certified shall not be liable to modification until the expiry of six months from the date on which they, or the last modifications, came into operation, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen or a trade union or other representative body.
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  1. Thereafter, the employer or any workman or a trade union or other representative body may apply to the Certifying Officer to have the standing orders modified. The application must be accompanied by copies of the modifications proposed, and where they are proposed by agreement, by a certified copy of that agreement.
  2. The same provisions as apply to original certification apply to such an application, so the modification goes through notice, objections within fifteen days, hearing, order, and a fresh right of appeal within thirty days.

Related provisions. Section 12A provides that until standing orders are certified, the model standing orders prescribed by the appropriate Government shall be deemed to be adopted in the establishment. Section 13 prescribes penalties for failure to submit the draft or for acting in contravention of certified standing orders, and Section 13(4) provides that no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of the second class shall try any such offence. Section 13A gives the Labour Court jurisdiction over questions of the application or interpretation of certified standing orders. Section 13B exempts establishments whose workmen are governed by specified government service rules.

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24.Define 'Industry' under the I.D. Act, 1947. How the Apex Court has widened the definition of the term 'Industry'?[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the text of Section 2(j); why the definition matters; the line of cases from Banerji to Safdarjung; Bangalore Water Supply and the triple test; the dominant nature test; what remains excluded; the 1982 amendment that never came into force; and the pending reference in Jai Bir Singh.

The definition. Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947: "industry" means any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers and includes any calling, service, employment, handicraft, or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen.

Why it matters. "Industry" is the gateway to the whole Act. There can be no "industrial dispute" under Section 2(k) unless it arises in an industry; without an industry there is no workman, no reference under Section 10, no Labour Court jurisdiction, and no protection against retrenchment or dismissal. Every employer resisting a claim therefore begins here.

The judicial expansion, stage by stage.

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  1. D.N. Banerji v. P.R. Mukherjee (1953). The dismissal of employees of a municipality was held to give rise to an industrial dispute. The Court held that "undertaking" in the first part of the definition is not confined to activities carried on with a profit motive, and that a municipality performing services such as conservancy and water supply carries on an industry. The profit motive was thus removed as a test.
  2. State of Bombay v. Hospital Mazdoor Sabha (1960). A group of government hospitals was held to be an industry. The Court laid down that an activity is an industry if it is analogous to trade or business, organised in the way trade or business is organised, and involves cooperation between employer and employee in the production of material services. Only the regal or sovereign functions of the State were excluded.
  3. Secretary, Madras Gymkhana Club v. Workmen (1968) and Cricket Club of India (1969). A members' club serving only its own members was held not to be an industry, because it is a self-serving institution and there is no employer-employee cooperation in the production of services for others.
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  1. Management of Safdarjung Hospital v. Kuldip Singh Sethi (1970). A sharp retreat. A hospital run by government as a place of training and research, not as an economic activity, was held not to be an industry, and Hospital Mazdoor Sabha was doubted. The test was narrowed to activities analogous to trade or business producing material goods or material services.
  2. Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978). A Bench of seven Judges overruled Safdarjung and settled the law with the triple test. Where there is (i) systematic activity, (ii) organised by cooperation between employer and employee, (iii) for the production and/or distribution of goods and services calculated to satisfy human wants and wishes, there is an industry. Absence of profit motive or a gainful objective is irrelevant, and so is the character of the employer, be it a private person, government or a statutory body. The nature of the activity, "with special emphasis on the employer-employee relations", is the decisive test.

What Bangalore Water Supply decided in detail.

  1. Professions, clubs, educational institutions, cooperatives, research institutes, charitable projects and other kindred adventures are industries if they satisfy the triple test, whatever their motive.
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  1. Dominant nature test. Where a complex of activities is carried on, some of which qualify and some do not, the predominant nature of the services and the integrated nature of the departments decide, and the whole undertaking is an industry. Departments that are not productive of goods and services, if they are integral to the main industry, take the character of the whole.
  2. Sovereign functions strictly understood are excluded, but the Court warned that "sovereign" is to be read narrowly, confined to the inalienable functions of the State such as defence, the administration of justice, law and order and the levy of taxes. Welfare activities and economic adventures undertaken by government or its statutory bodies are industries.
  3. Excluded also are institutions where the employer is engaged in a charitable, social or philanthropic service rendered free, and where those who serve do so without expectation of remuneration; and relationships where the personal skill and confidence of a professional dominates, such as a lone lawyer or doctor with no organised establishment.
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What the Court did not do. It expressly invited Parliament to legislate a workable definition. Parliament responded with the Industrial Disputes (Amendment) Act, 1982, which substituted a new Section 2(j) excluding hospitals and dispensaries, educational and research institutions, khadi and village industries, charitable and social service institutions, sovereign functions, and small establishments with fewer than ten workmen. That amendment has never been brought into force, so the judicial test in Bangalore Water Supply continues to govern.

The correctness of Bangalore Water Supply was doubted in State of U.P. v. Jai Bir Singh (2005), where a five-Judge Bench referred the question to a larger Bench, observing that the triple test had swept in institutions Parliament could not have intended. That reference is still pending, so the 1978 decision remains binding law.

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25.Define 'Retrenchment'. Illustrate the provisions regarding retrenchment under the I.D. Act, 1947.[12]

Answer

For full marks, cover: the definition in Section 2(oo) with all four exclusions; the wide judicial meaning; continuous service under Section 25B; the conditions in Section 25F; the procedure in Sections 25G and 25H; the Chapter VB requirements in Section 25N; the consequence of non-compliance; and the position under the new Code.

Definition. Section 2(oo): "retrenchment" means the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action, but does not include:

  1. voluntary retirement of the workman;
  2. retirement on reaching the age of superannuation, if the contract of employment contains a stipulation in that behalf;
  3. (bb) termination as a result of the non-renewal of the contract of employment on its expiry, or on the expiry of a fixed-term contract in accordance with a stipulation contained in it; or
  4. (c) termination of the service of a workman on the ground of continued ill-health.
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The wide meaning. In State Bank of India v. N. Sundara Money (1976) and conclusively in Punjab Land Development and Reclamation Corporation v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court (1990), a five-Judge Bench held that the words "for any reason whatsoever" mean what they say: retrenchment covers every termination other than the four excluded categories, and is not confined to discharge of surplus labour. So termination for loss of confidence, for unsatisfactory work short of misconduct, or for no stated reason at all, is retrenchment and attracts Section 25F.

Continuous service. Section 25B. A workman is in continuous service for one year if, during the preceding twelve calendar months, he has actually worked for not less than 240 days (or 190 days in a mine below ground). Days on which he was laid off, on leave with wages, absent due to a work-related accident, or, for a female workman, on maternity leave up to twelve weeks, are counted.

Conditions precedent. Section 25F. No workman employed in any industry who has been in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until:

  1. he has been given one month's notice in writing indicating the reasons for retrenchment and the period of notice has expired, or he has been paid wages in lieu of notice;
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  1. he has been paid, at the time of retrenchment, compensation equivalent to fifteen days' average pay for every completed year of continuous service or any part thereof in excess of six months; and
  2. notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate Government or the specified authority.

Illustration. A workman with seven years and eight months of continuous service, drawing average pay of Rs. 18,000 per month, is retrenched. The part year exceeds six months, so it counts as a completed year: eight years. Fifteen days' average pay is Rs. 9,000. Compensation is 8 x Rs. 9,000 = Rs. 72,000, plus one month's notice or Rs. 18,000 in lieu.

Procedure. Section 25G, last come first go. Where a workman belonging to a particular category is to be retrenched, the employer shall ordinarily retrench the workman who was the last person employed in that category, unless for reasons to be recorded he retrenches another. The rule protects seniority and, equally, protects against victimisation dressed up as retrenchment.

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Re-employment. Section 25H. Where any workman is retrenched and the employer proposes to take persons into employment, he shall give an opportunity to the retrenched workmen who are citizens of India to offer themselves for re-employment, and they shall have preference over other persons.

Larger establishments. Chapter VB. For an industrial establishment (not seasonal or intermittent) in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding twelve months, Section 25N applies. No such workman in continuous service for not less than one year shall be retrenched until he has been given three months' notice in writing indicating the reasons, or wages in lieu, and the prior permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application stating the reasons. The Government must decide after enquiry and after hearing the parties; its order is final for one year and is subject to review. Compensation is fifteen days' average pay for every completed year.

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Effect of non-compliance. Section 25F is mandatory and its conditions are conditions precedent. Retrenchment in breach of it is void ab initio, and the workman is entitled to reinstatement, ordinarily with continuity of service, and to such back wages as the Labour Court thinks fit. Later decisions have made back wages discretionary rather than automatic, requiring the workman to plead and prove he was not gainfully employed in the interval.

Under the new law. Section 70 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 reproduces Section 25F almost word for word, with the same one month's notice, fifteen days' average pay and notice to the Government. The threshold for the prior-permission regime rises from one hundred to three hundred workers under Section 77, and Section 83 creates a worker re-skilling fund to which the employer contributes fifteen days' wages for every retrenched worker, credited to the worker's account within forty-five days of retrenchment.

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Colophon

This volume prints the 2017-18 Labour Laws paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.

Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.

10 August 2026.

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