Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Contract I
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2023-24 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Contract I
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2023-24 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
This edition revised 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2023-24 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set. That matters in this subject: the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, took effect on 1 October 2018 and rewrote Sections 10, 14, 16 and 20, so specific performance is now the rule rather than a discretionary remedy. Where a question asks about a provision that has since been replaced, the answer gives the provision as it then stood and the present position, and says which is which. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2023-24 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2023-24 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Q.1: Answer the following in one or two sentences
Any 6 · (12 Marks - 2 marks each)
Answer
An invitation to offer, or invitation to treat, is a statement by which a person invites others to make proposals to him. It is not a proposal within Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, and therefore cannot be accepted into a contract; the response to it is itself the offer.
Examples: goods displayed in a shop with a price tag (Pharmaceutical Society of Great Britain v. Boots Cash Chemists, 1953; Fisher v. Bell, 1961); advertisements, catalogues and price lists (Partridge v. Crittenden, 1968); a tender notice; a company's prospectus inviting applications for shares; and an auctioneer's call for bids.
Answer
Section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "When the person to whom the proposal is made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted. A proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise."
The essentials of a valid acceptance are that it must be absolute and unqualified (Section 7(1)), expressed in some usual and reasonable manner unless the proposal prescribes a manner (Section 7(2)), and communicated to the proposer (Sections 3 and 4). It must be given by the person to whom the proposal was made, while the proposal subsists, and with knowledge of it.
Section 8 adds that the performance of the conditions of a proposal is itself an acceptance, which is how a general offer is accepted.
Answer
Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject."
Competence therefore has three requirements:
Answer
The doctrine of privity of contract means that only a person who is a party to a contract can sue or be sued upon it. A stranger to the contract acquires no rights under it and incurs no liabilities, even if the contract was made for his benefit.
Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. Ltd. v. Selfridge and Co. Ltd. (1915): Lord Haldane said that only a person who is a party to a contract can sue on it. In India the rule was affirmed in M.C. Chacko v. State Bank of Travancore (1970 SC).
It must be distinguished from privity of consideration, which is not required in India, because Section 2(d) allows consideration to move from "the promisee or any other person": Chinnaya v. Ramayya (1882 Mad).
Exceptions: a beneficiary under a trust or a charge on immovable property (Khwaja Muhammad Khan v. Husaini Begum, 1910 PC); a marriage settlement or family arrangement; acknowledgement or estoppel; agency; and covenants running with land (Tulk v. Moxhay, 1848).
Answer
The Act speaks of a voidable contract rather than a voidable agreement. Section 2(i): "An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a voidable contract."
It is a valid and binding contract until the party entitled to avoid it sets it aside. That party has an election: he may rescind it, or affirm it and hold the other side to it.
The standard instances are contracts where consent was caused by coercion (Section 15), undue influence (Section 16), fraud (Section 17) or misrepresentation (Section 18), which Sections 19 and 19A make voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused. Section 39 (refusal to perform in entirety) and Section 55 (failure to perform where time is of the essence) also produce voidable contracts.
Answer
A counter offer is a reply to a proposal which, instead of accepting it as made, introduces new or varied terms. It is not an acceptance at all but a fresh proposal by the original offeree.
Its effect is twofold. It is not a valid acceptance, because Section 7(1) requires an acceptance to be absolute and unqualified; and it destroys the original offer, which can no longer be accepted.
Hyde v. Wrench (1840): W offered to sell his farm for £1,000; H replied offering £950; W refused; H then purported to accept the original £1,000. Held, no contract, because the counter offer had extinguished the original offer.
Answer
A finder of goods is treated as a bailee. Section 71: "A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee."
His rights are:
Answer
Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, makes void an agreement that absolutely restricts a party from enforcing his rights by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or that limits the time within which he may enforce them, or that extinguishes his rights or discharges a party from liability on the expiry of a specified period.
It contains three exceptions:
Answer
Section 27(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, lists the cases in which the court may refuse to rescind a contract, notwithstanding that it is voidable or terminable:
Section 30 adds that on adjudging rescission the court may require the party to whom the relief is granted to restore any benefit received and to make compensation as justice may require.
Answer
It depends on which of the two remedies is used.
Section 6(4) preserves the right of any person to sue to establish his title under Section 5 even after a Section 6 suit has been decided.
Q.2: Write short notes
Any 2 · (12 Marks - 6 marks each)
Answer
For full marks, cover: what appropriation is, Sections 59, 60 and 61 in order, Clayton's Case itself with a worked illustration, and the limits of the rule.
Appropriation of payments answers the question: where a debtor owes several distinct debts to the same creditor and pays a sum insufficient to discharge them all, which debt is discharged? The Indian Contract Act deals with it in Sections 59 to 61, and Clayton's Rule governs a running account.
Section 59. Application of payment where debt to be discharged is indicated. Where a debtor owing several debts makes a payment with an express intimation, or under circumstances implying, that it is to be applied to a particular debt, the payment must be applied accordingly. The debtor has the first right to appropriate.
Section 60. Application where debt to be discharged is not indicated. Where the debtor omits to intimate and there are no circumstances indicating to which debt the payment is to be applied, the creditor may apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt actually due, including a debt barred by limitation.
Section 61. Application where neither party appropriates. Where neither party appropriates, the payment is applied to the discharge of the debts in order of time, whether or not barred by limitation, and if the debts are of equal standing, the payment is applied proportionately.
Clayton's Case, properly Devaynes v. Noble (1816), lays down the rule for a single running or current account, such as a bank account. Where there is one blended account, payments in are appropriated to the debts in the order in which the debts were incurred, so that the first item on the debit side is discharged by the first item on the credit side. This is the rule of "first in, first out".
Illustration. A owes his banker Rs. 10,000 drawn on 1 January, Rs. 15,000 drawn on 1 February and Rs. 20,000 drawn on 1 March, all on one running account. A pays in Rs. 12,000 on 1 April without appropriating it. Under Clayton's rule the Rs. 10,000 of 1 January is wiped out entirely and Rs. 2,000 goes towards the February advance.
Limits. The rule applies only where there is one entire running account; it does not apply where the accounts are kept separate, and it may be displaced by agreement or by a contrary intention.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definitions and the English distinction, Section 74 in full with its Explanation and Exception, and then the four Supreme Court decisions, closing with Section 23 of the Specific Relief Act.
Liquidated damages are a sum named in the contract itself as payable in case of breach, being a genuine pre estimate by the parties of the probable loss.
A penalty is a sum fixed in terrorem, that is to frighten the party into performing, and bearing no proportion to the loss the breach would actually cause.
In English law the distinction is decisive: liquidated damages are recoverable in full, and a penalty is irrecoverable, the injured party being left to prove his actual loss.
"When a contract has been broken, if a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of such breach, or if the contract contains any other stipulation by way of penalty, the party complaining of the breach is entitled, whether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused thereby, to receive from the party who has broken the contract reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named or, as the case may be, the penalty stipulated for."
Explanation. A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default may be a stipulation by way of penalty.
Exception. Where a person enters into a bail bond, recognizance or other instrument of the same nature, or gives a bond under any law or under the orders of the Government for the performance of a public duty, he is liable on breach to pay the whole sum mentioned in it.
Section 74 abolishes the English distinction. Whatever the clause is called, the court awards only reasonable compensation, and the named sum operates as a ceiling and not as an entitlement. This is the single most examinable point in the topic.
Section 23 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963: a stipulation for liquidated damages does not bar specific performance, unless the contract shows that the sum was named to give the party the option of paying money in lieu of performing.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and why such contracts exist, the danger, then each safeguard with its case, and the Indian unconscionability doctrine with the statutory controls.
A standard form contract, or contract of adhesion, is one whose terms are drawn up in advance by one party and offered to the other on a take it or leave it basis. The weaker party has the freedom to contract or not to contract, but no freedom to settle the terms.
Examples: insurance policies, bank and loan documents, hire purchase agreements, railway, bus and airline tickets, electricity and telephone connections, hotel, laundry and parking receipts, employment forms, and the terms of service of online platforms, including clickwrap, shrinkwrap and browsewrap agreements.
Why they exist. They are a necessity of mass commerce. An enterprise contracting with lakhs of customers cannot negotiate with each one, and standardisation makes transactions fast, uniform and cheap.
The danger. Because one party drafts the terms, they favour him and almost always contain exemption or exclusion clauses. The other party frequently does not read them and could not change them if he did, so consent becomes formal rather than real.
1. Reasonable notice of the terms. The party relying on printed conditions must show he took reasonable steps to bring them to the notice of the other.
2. Notice must be contemporaneous with the contract. Olley v. Marlborough Court (1949): a notice in a hotel bedroom came after the contract was concluded at the reception desk and was ineffective.
3. The document must be contractual in character. Chapelton v. Barry Urban District Council (1940): a deck chair ticket was a mere receipt, not a contractual document.
4. Contra proferentem. Ambiguity in an exemption clause is construed strictly against the party who drafted it.
5. Fundamental breach. A party cannot rely on an exemption clause to escape liability for a breach going to the root of the contract, or where he has performed something radically different from what was contracted for. Reduced in England to a rule of construction in Photo Production Ltd. v. Securicor Transport Ltd. (1980), but Indian courts continue to use it as a control.
6. Non est factum. A person who signs a document fundamentally different in character from what he believed he was signing, without negligence, may plead that it is not his deed. The plea is narrow: L'Estrange v. Graucob (1934) holds that a signature ordinarily binds.
7. Unconscionable terms, the Indian doctrine.
8. Statutory protection. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, defines and prohibits an "unfair contract" and empowers the consumer commissions to declare such terms null and void. Sectoral regulators such as IRDAI, the Reserve Bank of India and TRAI prescribe fair terms, and Article 299 of the Constitution governs government contracts.
9. Reform proposed, not enacted. The Law Commission of India, 103rd Report (1984), recommended a new Section 67A empowering courts to refuse to enforce unconscionable terms between parties of unequal bargaining power. It was never enacted, so the control remains judicial.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 26 in all four sub-sections, the conditions, what rectification is and is not, and the contrast with cancellation and rescission.
Rectification is the correction by the court of a written instrument which, through fraud or mutual mistake, does not express the real intention of the parties. It is dealt with in Chapter III of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, in Section 26.
Section 26(1). When, through fraud or a mutual mistake of the parties, a contract or other instrument in writing, not being the articles of association of a company to which the Companies Act applies, does not express their real intention, then:
Section 26(2). If the court finds that the instrument, through fraud or mistake, does not express the real intention of the parties, it may in its discretion direct rectification so as to express that intention, so far as this can be done without prejudice to rights acquired by third persons in good faith and for value.
Section 26(3). A contract in writing may first be rectified, and then, if the party claiming rectification has so prayed and the court thinks fit, may be specifically enforced.
Section 26(4). No relief for rectification shall be granted unless it has been specifically claimed; and where a party has not claimed it, the court shall at any stage allow him to amend the pleading on such terms as may be just.
Conditions:
Q.3: Solve the following
Any 2 · (12 Marks - 6 marks each)
Answer
(ii) Write about discretion of court in granting the relief for Specific Performance?
For full marks, cover: that X's plea is hardship, that hardship must have existed at the date of the contract and not arisen from his own conduct, and above all that the 2018 Amendment abolished the court's general discretion, so that the old Section 20 on which X's plea rested no longer exists.
Yes. Y will succeed. X's plea of having no alternative residence does not defeat the suit.
Step 1. Specific performance is now the rule, not a discretionary exception.
This paper was set in December 2023, that is after the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, which came into force on 1 October 2018. Section 10 now reads: "The specific performance of a contract shall be enforced by the court subject to the provisions contained in sub-section (2) of section 11, section 14 and section 16."
The court's general discretion has been removed. The only routes to refusal are Section 11(2) (a trustee acting in breach of trust), Section 14 (contracts not specifically enforceable) and Section 16 (personal bars). Hardship is not among them.
Step 2. None of the bars applies here.
Step 3. Immovable property is the classic subject of specific performance.
Damages are not an adequate substitute for land, because no two plots are the same, and a decree of specific performance has always been the ordinary remedy for a contract for the sale of immovable property. The Supreme Court said as much in Prakash Chandra v. Angadlal (1979): the normal rule is that specific performance should be granted in a contract for the sale of immovable property.
Step 4. What X's plea actually is, and why it fails.
X is pleading hardship, which under the old Section 20(2)(b) was a recognised ground for refusing the decree: the court could refuse where the performance "would involve some hardship on the defendant which he did not foresee, whereas its non performance would involve no such hardship on the plaintiff". Two things defeat him:
Conclusion: Y is entitled to a decree for specific performance, and may also claim possession under Section 22 and compensation under Section 21, provided both are specifically claimed in the plaint.
The honest answer distinguishes two periods, and saying so is what earns the marks.
Before the 2018 Amendment. Section 20 provided that "the jurisdiction to decree specific performance is discretionary, and the court is not bound to grant such relief merely because it is lawful to do so; but the discretion of the court is not arbitrary but sound and reasonable, guided by judicial principles and capable of correction by a court of appeal." Section 20(2) gave three cases in which the court might refuse:
Section 20(3) gave a case in which the court might properly exercise its discretion to decree performance, and Section 20(4) provided that the court shall not refuse merely because the contract is not enforceable at the instance of the other party.
After the 2018 Amendment, in force from 1 October 2018. Section 10 makes enforcement mandatory subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16, and the general discretion is gone. The old Section 20 has been replaced by substituted performance, under which an aggrieved party may, after thirty days' written notice, have the contract performed by a third party or by his own agency and recover the cost, but cannot then claim specific performance (Sections 14(a) and 16(a)).
What survives of discretion. It has not vanished entirely. Section 12 on part performance, Section 20A on infrastructure projects, Section 21 on compensation and Section 26(2) on rectification all use the language of discretion, and Section 16(c) still requires the plaintiff to prove readiness and willingness, which is where most such suits actually fail. What has gone is the open ended power to refuse a decree because the court thinks it unfair.
Answer
(iii) Can Y recover the contribution from the assets, in case Z becomes insolvent?
For full marks, cover: Sections 42, 43 and 44 with the arithmetic worked out for each part, and the point that joint liability in India is joint and several in substance.
Section 42. Devolution of joint liabilities. "When two or more persons have made a joint promise, then, unless a contrary intention appears by the contract, all such persons, during their joint lives, and, after the death of any of them, his representative jointly with the survivor or survivors, and, after the death of the last survivor, the representatives of all jointly, must fulfil the promise."
Section 43. Any one of joint promisors may be compelled to perform.
Section 44. Effect of release of one joint promisor. A release of one joint promisor by the promisee does not discharge the others, nor does it free the released promisor from his liability to contribute to his co promisors.
Yes. Y can recover Rs. 33,333.33 from each of X and Z.
Note that contribution is equal, not proportionate to benefit, "unless a contrary intention appears from the contract". If the loan agreement had allocated the borrowing between them in different shares, that allocation would govern.
Yes. The liability does not die with X.
Section 42 provides that after the death of one joint promisor, "his representative jointly with the survivor or survivors" must fulfil the promise, and after the death of the last survivor, the representatives of all jointly.
So:
Y may prove in Z's insolvency for whatever the estate will pay, and the shortfall is then shared equally between Y and X under paragraph 3 of Section 43.
Worked example. If Z's estate pays nothing, his whole share of Rs. 33,333.33 is lost. Y and X bear it equally, that is Rs. 16,666.67 each. So X's total liability to Y becomes Rs. 33,333.33 plus Rs. 16,666.67, which is Rs. 50,000, and Y bears Rs. 50,000 himself. The two solvent promisors end up sharing the debt equally, which is the result Section 43 is designed to produce.
If Z's estate pays half, that is Rs. 16,666.67, the shortfall of Rs. 16,666.66 is shared, so X owes Y Rs. 41,666.66 and Y bears the same.
Answer
(ii) What do you mean by discharge of Contract? State various modes of Discharge of Contract.
For full marks, cover: that the answer turns on whether the store had already accepted, Sections 5 and 6 if it had not, Section 62 if it had, and then the six modes of discharge.
The facts do not say whether the General Store had accepted the order for 8 kilograms before A telephoned again. That single fact decides the case, so a complete answer takes both alternatives.
Alternative A. If the store had not yet accepted the order.
A's order was a proposal under Section 2(a). Under Section 5, "a proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards", and under Section 6(1) a proposal is revoked "by the communication of notice of revocation by the proposer to the other party".
A's second telephone call, made "shortly after" the first, communicated a notice of revocation of the 8 kilogram order and made a fresh proposal for 10 kilograms. The earlier order therefore stands revoked, no contract for 8 kilograms ever came into existence, and neither party is bound by it. The store cannot deliver 8 kilograms and charge for them.
Alternative B. If the store had already accepted the order.
A contract for 8 kilograms had come into being, and A could not undo it unilaterally. It could then be discharged only by mutual consent under Section 62:
Either way the store's consent is essential. If the store agreed to supply 10 kilograms instead, "the original contract need not be performed" (Section 62), and the 8 kilogram contract is discharged. If the store refused, the contract for 8 kilograms stands, and A's refusal to take delivery would be a breach, for which the store could claim compensation under Section 73, measured by the difference between the contract price and the market price.
In practice Alternative A is the likelier reading, since the call was made "shortly after" the order and before any delivery, and shop orders of this kind are ordinarily accepted by dispatch.
The second communication is, on either view, a fresh proposal which becomes binding only when the store signifies its assent under Section 2(b), or accepts by performing the conditions of the proposal under Section 8, that is by dispatching 10 kilograms. It is not a counter offer in the Hyde v. Wrench sense, because it comes from the same party who made the original proposal, and a proposer is free to withdraw and replace his own proposal; a counter offer is a reply by the offeree that varies the terms.
Discharge of a contract means the termination of the contractual relation between the parties, so that they are no longer bound by the obligations they undertook. There are six modes.
1. By performance (Sections 37 to 61). Section 37 requires the parties to perform, or offer to perform, their promises. Section 38 deals with attempted performance or tender: a promisor who offers to perform and is refused is not responsible for non performance and does not lose his rights. Sections 42 to 45 govern joint promises, 46 to 50 time and place, 55 time as the essence, and 59 to 61 appropriation of payments.
2. By mutual agreement or consent (Sections 62 to 67). Novation, rescission and alteration under Section 62; remission under Section 63, for which no consideration is required in India; waiver; merger; and Section 67, which excuses a promisor whom the promisee has not afforded reasonable facilities for performance.
3. By impossibility of performance (Section 56). Initial impossibility makes the agreement void; supervening impossibility, that is frustration, makes the contract void. Grounds: destruction of the subject matter (Taylor v. Caldwell, 1863), death or personal incapacity (Robinson v. Davison, 1871), supervening illegality, non occurrence of the basis of the contract (Krell v. Henry, 1903), and war. Not grounds: commercial hardship, difficulty, strikes, a third party's default, and self induced impossibility. Section 65 requires restitution of advantages received.
4. By lapse of time (Limitation Act, 1963). Three years for a suit on a breach of contract, and three years for specific performance under Article 54.
5. By operation of law. Death where personal skill is essential; insolvency; merger; material alteration of a written contract by one party without the other's consent; and unauthorised cancellation of an instrument.
6. By breach (Sections 39, 73 to 75). Actual breach and anticipatory breach. Section 39 entitles the promisee to put an end to the contract where the other has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing, in entirety, unless he has acquiesced in its continuance. Hochster v. De La Tour (1853) permits an immediate suit on an anticipatory breach.
Remedies for breach: rescission with compensation under Section 75; damages under Sections 73 and 74; quantum meruit; and specific performance or injunction under the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Answer
However, there was a dispute between them and Reeta wants to approach the Court for solving the dispute. (i) Can Reeta approach the Court in this matter?
Specify with proper reasons. (ii) What do you mean by void agreements?
What are the effects of such agreements?
For full marks, cover: Section 28 and that the clause is an absolute restriction and therefore void, that Section 28 avoids the clause and not the contract, the three exceptions, and then void agreements generally with Section 65.
Yes. Reeta can approach the Court. The clause is void and does not bind her.
Step 1. The clause is an agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides that "every agreement ... (a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his rights ... is void to that extent."
The clause here says that "neither party shall be allowed to approach the courts for any kind of resolution". That is an absolute restriction: it names no forum at all in place of the courts, no arbitration, no time limit, nothing. It simply removes the remedy.
Step 2. It is therefore void, and Reeta is not bound by it.
An agreement caught by Section 28 is void to that extent, so Reeta may sue on the contract exactly as if the clause had never been written.
Step 3. Note precisely what is void, because this is where marks are lost.
Only the clause is void, not the whole contract. Section 28 says the agreement is void "to that extent", and the same words appear in Section 27. So the contract for the sale of the house stands, and it is the ouster clause alone that falls. Reeta may sue on the contract for specific performance under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, or for damages under Section 73.
Step 4. None of the three exceptions applies.
Section 28 does not avoid:
This clause is none of these. It refers the parties to no forum whatever. Had it said "all disputes shall be referred to arbitration", it would have been perfectly valid, and Reeta would have had to arbitrate rather than sue.
Step 5. Two further reasons, worth a line each.
Conclusion: the ouster clause is void under Section 28; the sale contract stands; and Reeta may sue.
Section 2(g): "An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void." It is a nullity from the outset, void ab initio: it creates no rights, imposes no obligations, and no suit lies upon it by either party.
Distinguish it from:
The agreements expressly declared void by the Act:
Effects of a void agreement:
Q.4: Answer the Following in Detail
Any 2 · (24 Marks - 12 marks each)
Answer
For full marks, cover: Sections 2(h) and 10, then each essential as a heading with its sections and cases: offer and acceptance, intention to create legal relations, lawful consideration, capacity, free consent, lawful object, agreements not expressly declared void, certainty and possibility, and legal formalities.
Section 2(h): "An agreement enforceable by law is a contract." Section 2(e): "Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an agreement."
So Agreement + Enforceability at law = Contract. As Anson put it, all contracts are agreements, but all agreements are not contracts.
Section 10 supplies the test of enforceability: "All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not hereby expressly declared to be void." It adds that nothing in the section affects any law by which a contract must be made in writing or in the presence of witnesses, or registered.
There must be a lawful offer by one party and a lawful acceptance by the other.
Not stated in the Act, but required by the courts.
Section 11: a person must be of the age of majority, of sound mind, and not disqualified by law.
Section 13: consensus ad idem, agreeing upon the same thing in the same sense. Section 14: consent is free when not caused by coercion (15), undue influence (16), fraud (17), misrepresentation (18) or mistake (20 to 22).
Section 23: unlawful if forbidden by law, if it would defeat the provisions of any law, if fraudulent, if it involves injury to the person or property of another, or if the court regards it as immoral or opposed to public policy. Such an agreement is void. Section 24: void as a whole where part of a single consideration is unlawful and not severable.
Sections 26 to 30, 36 and 56 declare void agreements in restraint of marriage (26), restraint of trade (27), restraint of legal proceedings (28), those uncertain (29), those by way of wager (30), those contingent on an impossible event (36), and those to do an act impossible in itself (56).
Section 29: "Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void." Illustration: an agreement to sell "a hundred tons of oil" without saying what kind is void; but if the seller deals only in coconut oil, his trade makes the meaning certain. Section 56, first paragraph: an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void.
The Act generally requires no writing, and an oral contract is as valid as a written one. But the saving in Section 10 preserves any law requiring writing, attestation or registration, and such requirements appear in Sections 25(1) and 25(3), in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and in the Registration Act, 1908.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 36 for the meaning of preventive relief, the two classifications, Sections 37 to 42 in order, the three tests for a temporary injunction, and every clause of Section 41.
Preventive relief is relief granted by restraining a person from doing what he ought not to do, or by compelling him to undo it. It is the subject of Part III of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, Sections 36 to 42, and it is granted by injunction.
Section 36. Preventive relief how granted. "Preventive relief is granted at the discretion of the court by injunction, temporary or perpetual."
An injunction is an order of a court directing a person to do, or to refrain from doing, a particular act.
It is called preventive because, unlike damages, which compensate for a wrong already done, an injunction stops the wrong. Where the injury is continuing, or where money cannot measure it, damages are useless and only an order will serve.
By stage. Section 37.
By form.
The three tests for a temporary injunction, applied cumulatively: a prima facie case; the balance of convenience in the applicant's favour; and irreparable injury which cannot be compensated in money.
38(1). To prevent the breach of an obligation existing in favour of the applicant, whether expressly or by implication.
38(2). Where the obligation arises from contract, the court shall be guided by the rules and provisions contained in Chapter II, that is by the law of specific performance.
38(3). Where the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff's right to, or enjoyment of, property, the court may grant a perpetual injunction where:
The Explanation deems a trespass to property occasioning or likely to occasion irreparable injury to be an invasion within clause (c).
"When, to prevent the breach of an obligation, it is necessary to compel the performance of certain acts which the court is capable of enforcing, the court may in its discretion grant an injunction to prevent the breach complained of, and also to compel performance of the requisite acts."
Granted sparingly, because it is drastic and its execution must be capable of supervision. The court weighs the hardship to the defendant against the plaintiff's injury, and delay weighs heavily against the plaintiff.
The plaintiff may claim damages either in addition to, or in substitution for, the injunction, and the court may award them if it thinks fit. The damages must be claimed in the plaint, with liberty to amend. The dismissal of the suit bars a later suit for damages for the same breach.
Notwithstanding Section 41(e), where a contract comprises an affirmative agreement coupled with a negative agreement, the court's inability to compel specific performance of the affirmative part does not preclude it from granting an injunction to perform the negative part, provided the plaintiff has not failed to perform the contract so far as it is binding on him.
Lumley v. Wagner (1852): a singer could not be compelled to sing for the plaintiff, but she was restrained from singing for a rival. In India, Niranjan Shankar Golikari v. The Century Spinning and Manufacturing Co. Ltd. (1967 SC) upheld a negative covenant restraining an employee from serving a competitor during his employment.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning of breach, actual and anticipatory with Section 39 and Hochster v. De La Tour, then each of the five remedies with its sections and cases, giving the most space to damages under Sections 73 and 74.
A breach of contract occurs when a party, without lawful excuse, fails or refuses to perform what he has promised, performs defectively, or disables himself from performing.
The duty to perform is imposed by Section 37: the parties must either perform, or offer to perform, their respective promises, unless performance is dispensed with or excused. A failure that is excused, for example by frustration under Section 56 or by the promisee's refusal of a valid tender under Section 38, is not a breach.
1. Actual breach, occurring when performance is due, or during performance.
2. Anticipatory breach, occurring before the time for performance arrives, in two forms:
Section 39. Effect of refusal of a party to perform promise wholly. "When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing, his promise in its entirety, the promisee may put an end to the contract, unless he has signified, by words or conduct, his acquiescence in its continuance."
Hochster v. De La Tour (1853): a courier engaged from 1 June was told on 11 May that his services were not required, and was held entitled to sue at once.
The aggrieved party's election on an anticipatory breach: he may accept the repudiation, treat the contract as at an end and sue immediately, damages then being assessed at the date of repudiation; or he may keep the contract alive, in which case it remains alive for both parties, and if a frustrating event intervenes before the due date, the contract is discharged and he recovers nothing: Avery v. Bowden (1855).
1. Rescission of the contract (Sections 39 and 75). The aggrieved party may put an end to the contract and is absolved from performing his own side. Section 75: "A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage which he has sustained through the non fulfilment of the contract." He may also sue under Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, to have the rescission adjudged.
2. Damages (Sections 73 and 74).
Section 73: compensation for loss which naturally arose in the usual course of things from the breach, or which the parties knew when they made the contract to be likely to result from it; no compensation for remote and indirect loss. This codifies Hadley v. Baxendale (1854), which gave the two rules of ordinary and special damages.
Kinds of damages:
Section 74. Liquidated damages and penalty. Where a sum is named in the contract as payable on breach, or there is any stipulation by way of penalty, the aggrieved party is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named, whether or not actual damage is proved. India abolishes the English distinction: Fateh Chand v. Balkishan Das (1963 SC); Maula Bux v. Union of India (1969 SC); Kailash Nath Associates v. Delhi Development Authority (2015 SC).
Duty to mitigate. The Explanation to Section 73 requires the court to take into account the means which existed of remedying the inconvenience. The injured party must take reasonable steps to minimise his loss, cannot recover for a loss he could have avoided, and may recover the reasonable expenses of mitigation.
3. Suit upon quantum meruit. Quantum meruit means "as much as is earned", and is a claim for reasonable remuneration for work actually done, brought outside the contract. It lies where the contract is discovered to be void or becomes void (Section 65), where the other party prevents completion or breaches the contract, under a divisible contract, and where an express contract is abandoned by consent. Section 70 supports it where a person lawfully does something for another, not intending to do so gratuitously, and the other enjoys the benefit. Craven-Ellis v. Canons Ltd. (1936).
4. Suit for specific performance. Under Chapter II of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. Since the 2018 Amendment, Section 10 provides that specific performance shall be enforced, subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16. It is the natural remedy where damages are inadequate, typically for immovable property or goods with no market substitute. It is barred for contracts requiring continuous supervision, contracts dependent on personal qualifications, contracts determinable in nature, and where the plaintiff cannot prove readiness and willingness under Section 16(c). Section 20 now offers substituted performance after thirty days' notice as an alternative.
5. Suit for injunction. Under Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, temporary or perpetual, to restrain a party from doing what he promised not to do. Its most important use in contract is Section 42, which allows the court to enforce a negative covenant by injunction even where the affirmative agreement cannot be specifically enforced: Lumley v. Wagner (1852); Niranjan Shankar Golikari (1967 SC).
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 31 with its three essentials and illustration, Sections 32 to 36 in order with the Act's own illustrations, the grid that organises them, and the comparison with a wagering agreement.
Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen."
Illustration: A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000 if B's house is burnt. This is a contingent contract.
Essentials:
The word "collateral" is what separates a contingent contract from an ordinary conditional one. "I will pay you Rs. 10,000 if you deliver the goods" is not contingent, because delivery is the consideration. "I will pay you Rs. 10,000 if your house burns down" is contingent, because the fire is no part of what either party promised.
Contracts of insurance, indemnity (Section 124) and guarantee (Section 126) are the standard commercial examples.
Section 32. Enforcement of contracts contingent on an event happening. "Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if an uncertain future event happens cannot be enforced by law unless and until that event has happened. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void."
Illustrations:
Section 33. Enforcement of contracts contingent on an event not happening. "Contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if an uncertain future event does not happen can be enforced when the happening of that event becomes impossible, and not before."
Illustration: A agrees to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return. The ship is sunk. The contract can be enforced when the ship sinks.
Section 34. When an event on which a contract is contingent is to be deemed impossible, if it is the future conduct of a living person. "If the future event on which a contract is contingent is the way in which a person will act at an unspecified time, the event shall be considered to become impossible when such person does anything which renders it impossible that he should so act within any definite time, or otherwise than under further contingencies."
Illustration: A agrees to pay B a sum of money if B marries C. C marries D. The marriage of B to C must now be considered impossible, although it is possible that D may die and that C may afterwards marry B.
Section 35, first paragraph. Contingent on an event happening within a fixed time. Such contracts become void if, at the expiration of the time fixed, the event has not happened, or if before the time fixed the event becomes impossible.
Illustration: A promises to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship returns within a year. The contract may be enforced if the ship returns within the year, and becomes void if the ship is burnt within the year.
Section 35, second paragraph. Contingent on an event not happening within a fixed time. Such contracts may be enforced when the time fixed has expired and the event has not happened, or before the time fixed has expired, if it becomes certain that the event will not happen.
Illustration: A promises to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return within a year. The contract may be enforced if the ship does not return within the year, or is burnt within the year.
Section 36. Agreements contingent on impossible events void. "Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens, are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made."
Illustrations:
| The event must | With no time limit | Within a fixed time |
|---|---|---|
| Happen | Section 32: enforceable only when it happens; void if it becomes impossible | Section 35(1): void if it has not happened when the time expires, or becomes impossible before |
| Not happen | Section 33: enforceable when its happening becomes impossible | Section 35(2): enforceable when the time expires without it happening, or when it becomes certain it will not |
Two special cases sit outside the grid: Section 34, where the event is the future conduct of a living person, and Section 36, where the event was impossible from the outset.
| Basis | Contingent contract | Wagering agreement |
|---|---|---|
| Section | 31 to 36 | 30 |
| Validity | Valid and enforceable | Void |
| Interest in the event | The parties have a real interest apart from the stake | Neither has any interest except the sum he wins or loses |
| Nature of the promises | Not necessarily reciprocal; performance is merely postponed | Mutual and opposite: one wins exactly what the other loses |
| The event | Collateral to the contract | The sole determining factor, created for the wager |
| Example | Contract of insurance | A bet on a cricket match |
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This volume prints the 2023-24 Contract I paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
Written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk. Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
10 August 2026, revised 11 August 2026.
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