Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Contract I
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Contract I
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2022-23 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
This edition revised 11 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
Passages from this volume may be quoted, in print, online or by an AI system, with credit: name munotes.in and link to this volume's page. The volume may not be reproduced as a whole. Full terms at munotes.in/content-license.
munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2022-23 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set. That matters in this subject: the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, took effect on 1 October 2018 and rewrote Sections 10, 14, 16 and 20, so specific performance is now the rule rather than a discretionary remedy. Where a question asks about a provision that has since been replaced, the answer gives the provision as it then stood and the present position, and says which is which. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2022-23 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2022-23 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 2 hours · Total marks 60 · 22 questions answered
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Q.A: Answer the following in one or two sentences
Any 6 · (12 Marks - 2 marks each)
Answer
Section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "When the person to whom the proposal is made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted. A proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise."
The essentials are that the acceptance must be absolute and unqualified (Section 7(1)), expressed in some usual and reasonable manner unless the proposal prescribes a manner (Section 7(2)), and communicated to the proposer (Sections 3 and 4). It must be given by the person to whom the proposal was made, while the proposal subsists, and with knowledge of it.
Section 8 adds that the performance of the conditions of a proposal is itself an acceptance, which is how a general offer is accepted.
Answer
A standard form contract, or contract of adhesion, is one whose terms are drawn up in advance by one party and offered to the other on a take it or leave it basis. The weaker party has the freedom to contract or not to contract, but no freedom to settle the terms.
Examples: insurance policies, bank and loan documents, railway, bus, airline and cruise tickets, electricity and telephone connections, hotel, laundry and parking receipts, and the terms of service of online platforms.
They are a necessity of mass commerce, because an enterprise dealing with lakhs of customers cannot negotiate with each. Because the stronger party writes the terms, the law protects the weaker one through reasonable notice of the terms, strict construction against the drafter, and the striking down of unconscionable terms.
Answer
Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen."
Illustration: A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000 if B's house is burnt. This is a contingent contract.
Essentials: performance depends on a future event; the event must be uncertain; and it must be collateral to the contract, that is incidental to it, and neither the performance promised by either party nor the consideration for the contract.
Contracts of insurance, indemnity and guarantee are the standard examples.
Answer
Section 16(1): "A contract is said to be induced by 'undue influence' where (i) the relations subsisting between the parties are such that one of them is in a position to dominate the will of the other, and (ii) he uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage over the other." Both elements must be present.
Section 16(2) deems a person to be in a position to dominate the will of another (a) where he holds a real or apparent authority over the other or stands in a fiduciary relation to him, or (b) where he contracts with a person whose mental capacity is temporarily or permanently affected by reason of age, illness, or mental or bodily distress.
Section 16(3) shifts the burden of proof: where a person in a position to dominate contracts with the other and the transaction appears, on the face of it or on the evidence adduced, to be unconscionable, the burden of proving that the contract was not induced by undue influence lies on the dominant party.
Effect. Section 19A: the contract is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused, and the court may set it aside absolutely or upon such terms as it thinks just.
Answer
Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, lists the persons who may obtain specific performance. Besides a party to the contract:
Answer
Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963: "When, to prevent the breach of an obligation, it is necessary to compel the performance of certain acts which the court is capable of enforcing, the court may in its discretion grant an injunction to prevent the breach complained of, and also to compel performance of the requisite acts."
A mandatory injunction is positive in form: it orders the defendant to do something, ordinarily to undo a wrong already committed, for example to demolish a wall built across the plaintiff's right of way. An ordinary injunction merely forbids.
Two conditions must be satisfied: the acts required must be such as the court is capable of enforcing, and the court must think it necessary to compel them in order to prevent the breach.
Answer
The general rule is in the Explanation to Section 17: "Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech."
So silence amounts to fraud in two cases:
Answer
Rectification is the correction by the court of a written instrument which, through fraud or mutual mistake, does not express the real intention of the parties. It is governed by Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Section 26(1) allows the relief to be sought in three ways: by a suit for rectification; by a plaintiff claiming it in his pleading in any suit in which a right under the instrument is in issue; or by a defendant asking for it in addition to any other defence. The articles of association of a company are excluded.
Section 26(2): the court may, in its discretion, direct rectification so as to express the real intention, so far as it can be done without prejudice to rights acquired by third persons in good faith and for value.
Section 26(3): a contract may first be rectified and then specifically enforced, if so prayed.
Section 26(4): the relief must be specifically claimed, and the court shall allow an amendment to include the claim.
Answer
A counter offer is a reply to a proposal which, instead of accepting it as made, introduces new or varied terms. It is not an acceptance at all but a fresh proposal by the original offeree.
Its effect is twofold. It is not a valid acceptance, because Section 7(1) requires an acceptance to be absolute and unqualified; and it destroys the original offer, which can no longer be accepted.
Hyde v. Wrench (1840): W offered to sell his farm for £1,000; H replied offering £950; W refused; H then purported to accept the original £1,000. Held, no contract, because the counter offer had extinguished the original offer.
Answer
The doctrine of privity of contract means that only a person who is a party to a contract can sue or be sued upon it. A stranger acquires no rights under it and incurs no liabilities, even if the contract was made for his benefit.
Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. Ltd. v. Selfridge and Co. Ltd. (1915): Lord Haldane said that only a person who is a party to a contract can sue on it. In India, M.C. Chacko v. State Bank of Travancore (1970 SC).
It must be distinguished from privity of consideration, which is not required in India, since Section 2(d) allows consideration to move from "the promisee or any other person": Chinnaya v. Ramayya (1882 Mad).
Exceptions: a beneficiary under a trust or charge on immovable property (Khwaja Muhammad Khan v. Husaini Begum, 1910 PC); a marriage settlement or family arrangement; acknowledgement or estoppel; agency; and covenants running with land (Tulk v. Moxhay, 1848).
Q.2: Write short notes
Any 2 · (12 Marks - 6 marks each)
Answer
For full marks, cover: Article 298 for the capacity and Article 299 for the form, the three mandatory requirements of Article 299(1), the consequence of non compliance with Chatturbhuj and Bhikraj Jaipuria, the relief under Section 70 with B.K. Mondal, Article 299(2) on personal immunity, and the public law duty to act fairly.
The Government may enter into contracts, and when it does it is bound by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, like any other party. But the Constitution imposes a special form, and non compliance is fatal.
Article 298 of the Constitution of India: the executive power of the Union and of each State extends to carrying on any trade or business, to the acquisition, holding and disposal of property, and to the making of contracts for any purpose.
"All contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union or of a State shall be expressed to be made by the President, or by the Governor of the State, as the case may be, and all such contracts and all assurances of property made in the exercise of that power shall be executed on behalf of the President or the Governor by such persons and in such manner as he may direct or authorise."
Three mandatory requirements:
The requirements are mandatory and not directory, and a contract that does not satisfy them is void and unenforceable against the Government.
Where the Government has taken the benefit of goods or services under an agreement void for want of form, the supplier is not without a remedy.
Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered."
State of West Bengal v. B.K. Mondal and Sons (1962 SC) is the leading case: work was done for the State under an arrangement that did not satisfy Article 299, and the State had taken the benefit of it. The Supreme Court held that the contractor could recover compensation under Section 70, since that section creates an obligation independent of contract and is not defeated by the invalidity of the agreement.
"Neither the President nor the Governor shall be personally liable in respect of any contract or assurance made or executed for the purposes of this Constitution ... nor shall any person making or executing any such contract or assurance on behalf of any of them be personally liable in respect thereof."
Even where the Government contracts in its commercial capacity, it is not a private party. Its actions are subject to Article 14, so it must act fairly, reasonably and without arbitrariness, particularly in the award of contracts and tenders. Standard form terms imposed by the State are open to challenge as unconscionable: Central Inland Water Transport Corporation v. Brojo Nath Ganguly (1986 SC); LIC of India v. Consumer Education and Research Centre (1995 SC). Suits by and against the Government are governed by Article 300 and by Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which requires two months' prior notice.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 34 with its two conditions and the proviso, Section 35 on the effect, who may sue and what may be declared, and the discretionary nature of the relief.
A declaratory decree is a decree by which the court declares the plaintiff's legal character, or his right to any property, without ordering any consequential relief. It is dealt with in Chapter VI of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, in Sections 34 and 35.
"Any person entitled to any legal character, or to any right as to any property, may institute a suit against any person denying, or interested to deny, his title to such character or right, and the court may in its discretion make therein a declaration that he is so entitled, and the plaintiff need not in such suit ask for any further relief:
Provided that no court shall make any such declaration where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so.
Explanation. A trustee of property is a "person interested to deny" a title adverse to the title of someone who is not in existence, and for whom, if in existence, he would be a trustee."
The conditions are therefore:
"Legal character" means a person's status, for example that he is a legitimate son, an adopted son, a citizen, a member of a caste or community, the holder of an office, married or unmarried, a major or a minor.
"A declaration made under this Chapter is binding only on the parties to the suit, persons claiming through them respectively, and, where any of the parties are trustees, on the persons for whom, if in existence at the date of the declaration, such parties would be trustees."
So a declaratory decree operates in personam and not in rem. It does not bind the world, and a stranger to the suit may dispute the same question afresh.
A plaintiff who could have claimed consequential relief and asked only for a declaration will be non suited. The classic case is a plaintiff out of possession of land who sues for a bare declaration of title without also asking for possession; the suit is barred by the proviso.
The purpose is to prevent a multiplicity of suits, since a bare declaration would have to be followed by a second suit to obtain the relief that should have been claimed in the first.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 28 in both its clauses, the three exceptions in full, the distinction between absolute and partial restrictions, the 1997 and 2013 amendments, and the relation to Section 23.
Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings void.
"Every agreement:
(a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his rights; or
(b) which extinguishes the rights of any party thereto, or discharges any party thereto from any liability, under or in respect of any contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict any party from enforcing his rights,
is void to that extent."
Exception 1. Saving of contract to refer to arbitration a dispute that may arise. The section shall not render illegal a contract by which two or more persons agree that any dispute which may arise between them in respect of any subject shall be referred to arbitration, and that only the amount awarded in such arbitration shall be recoverable in respect of the dispute so referred.
Exception 2. Saving of contract to refer questions that have already arisen. Nor shall the section render illegal any contract in writing by which two or more persons agree to refer to arbitration any question between them which has already arisen, or affect any provision of any law in force for the time being as to references to arbitration.
Exception 3. Saving of a guarantee agreement of a bank or a financial institution. Nor shall the section render illegal a contract in writing by which any bank or financial institution stipulates a term in a guarantee or any other agreement or a memorandum of understanding which in effect extinguishes the rights or discharges any party thereto from any liability under or in respect of such guarantee or agreement on the expiry of a specified period which is not less than one year from the date of occurrence or non occurrence of the specified event for extinguishment or discharge of such party from the liability.
Void:
Not void:
Before the Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1997, the section caught only agreements limiting the time for enforcement. A clause that extinguished the right itself after a period escaped it, and was upheld on the reasoning that it destroyed the right rather than restricting the remedy. The 1997 amendment inserted clause (b) to close that gap. Exception 3 was added in 2013, because bank guarantees genuinely need a cut off date, and one year was fixed as the minimum.
Independently of Section 28, an agreement to oust the jurisdiction of all courts is opposed to public policy and therefore void under Section 23, since the administration of justice is a matter of public and not merely private concern. Parties cannot by agreement confer jurisdiction on a court that does not have it, nor take away the jurisdiction a court has by law.
Answer
For full marks, cover: what appropriation is, Sections 59, 60 and 61 in order, Clayton's Case with a worked illustration, and the limits of the rule.
Appropriation of payments answers the question: where a debtor owes several distinct debts to the same creditor and pays a sum insufficient to discharge them all, which debt is discharged? The Indian Contract Act deals with it in Sections 59 to 61, and Clayton's Rule governs a running account.
Section 59. Application of payment where debt to be discharged is indicated. Where a debtor owing several distinct debts makes a payment with an express intimation, or under circumstances implying, that it is to be applied to a particular debt, the payment must be applied accordingly. The debtor has the first right to appropriate.
Section 60. Application where debt to be discharged is not indicated. Where the debtor omits to intimate and there are no circumstances indicating to which debt the payment is to be applied, the creditor may apply it at his discretion to any lawful debt actually due, including a debt barred by limitation.
Section 61. Application where neither party appropriates. Where neither party appropriates, the payment is applied to the discharge of the debts in order of time, whether or not barred by limitation; and if the debts are of equal standing, the payment is applied proportionately.
Clayton's Case, properly Devaynes v. Noble (1816), lays down the rule for a single running or current account, such as a bank account. Where there is one blended account, payments in are appropriated to the debts in the order in which the debts were incurred, so that the first item on the debit side is discharged by the first item on the credit side. This is "first in, first out".
Illustration. A owes his banker Rs. 10,000 drawn on 1 January, Rs. 15,000 drawn on 1 February and Rs. 20,000 drawn on 1 March, all on one running account. A pays in Rs. 12,000 on 1 April without appropriating it. Under Clayton's rule the Rs. 10,000 of 1 January is wiped out entirely and Rs. 2,000 goes towards the February advance.
Limits. The rule applies only where there is one entire running account; it does not apply where the accounts are kept separate, and it may be displaced by agreement or by a contrary intention, because it is a rule of presumed intention and not of law.
Q.3: Solve the Following
Any 2 · (12 Marks - 6 marks each)
Answer
The luggage of Mr 'X' was lost during the voyage. (a) Explain reasonable notice of terms as per standard form of contract.
(b) Will the company be liable in the present situation?
For full marks, cover: the rule of reasonable notice with the four English cases, then apply Henderson v. Stevenson, which is this exact fact pattern, and conclude that the company is liable.
This problem is Henderson v. Stevenson (1875) with a cruise in place of a steamer. Naming it is worth a mark on its own.
A standard form contract is one whose terms are drawn up in advance by one party and offered to the other on a take it or leave it basis. Because the customer does not negotiate and often does not read the terms, the law insists that the party relying on them must show he gave reasonable notice of them.
The rule. Parker v. South Eastern Railway (1877). The party relying on printed conditions must show that he took reasonable steps to bring them to the notice of the other party before or at the time the contract was made. Three questions were framed:
If the answer to the third is no, the conditions do not form part of the contract.
The rules that follow from it:
Yes. The cruise company is liable for the loss of X's luggage. The exemption clause does not bind him.
Step 1. The facts are those of Henderson v. Stevenson (1875). The plaintiff bought a steamer ticket from Dublin to Whitehaven. On the face of the ticket were only the names of the ports. On the back was a condition that the company would not be liable for loss, injury or delay to the passenger or his luggage. The plaintiff never looked at the back and there was nothing on the face to direct him to it. The ship was wrecked through the fault of the company's servants and his luggage was lost. Held, he was entitled to recover: the condition did not bind him, because he had not been given reasonable notice of it.
Step 2. Apply the test to X.
Step 3. Consequence.
Step 4. Two arguments the company might raise, and why they fail.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and the 2018 Amendment, then that a painting is an article for which damages are inadequate, Section 10 and Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, and the bars that do not apply.
Specific performance is an equitable remedy by which the court directs a party to a contract to perform it according to its terms, instead of leaving the aggrieved party to a claim for damages. It is governed by Chapter II of the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Its justification is that damages are not always an adequate substitute. Money will buy another consignment of wheat; it will not buy the particular plot of land or the particular painting.
The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, changed the basic rule from 1 October 2018. Section 10 now reads: "The specific performance of a contract shall be enforced by the court subject to the provisions contained in sub-section (2) of section 11, section 14 and section 16." Before the amendment the remedy was discretionary, and the old Section 20 gave the court a wide power to refuse. That discretion is now gone, and specific performance is the rule.
Yes. Q is entitled to a decree for specific performance, or to a decree for delivery of the painting itself.
Step 1. Damages are not an adequate remedy.
The problem states that the painting is "not easily available in the market". A painting is not an ordinary article of commerce; it is unique, and no sum of money will buy Q the same picture. This is the paradigm case for a specific remedy, and it has always been so: even under the old law, the Explanation to old Section 10 provided that the breach of a contract to transfer movable property could not be adequately relieved by compensation where the property was not an ordinary article of commerce, or was of special value or interest to the plaintiff, or consisted of goods not easily obtainable in the market.
Step 2. Under the present Section 10, enforcement is the rule.
Since 2018, Q does not have to establish that damages are inadequate as a threshold. The court shall enforce the contract unless one of the three named provisions bars it.
Step 3. None of the bars applies.
Step 4. The alternative and more precise remedy: Section 8.
Since the subject matter is movable property, Q may also proceed under Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, which allows a person entitled to the immediate possession of a particular article of movable property to compel its specific delivery where:
Explanation 1 to Section 8 creates a presumption in Q's favour: unless the contrary is proved, the court shall presume that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief for the loss of any article having a special value to the plaintiff, or which he cannot readily obtain in the market. A painting not easily available in the market falls squarely within those words.
Step 5. Ancillary relief. Under Section 21, Q may claim compensation in addition to, or in substitution for, specific performance, provided he claims it in the plaint.
Conclusion: Q should sue for specific performance under Section 10, and in the alternative for delivery of the painting under Section 8, pleading readiness and willingness throughout and claiming compensation in the alternative under Section 21.
Answer
(b) What remedy does Mr 'D' have to recover the possession of his flat from Mr 'S' under Specific Relief Act?
For full marks, cover: that a caretaker's possession is the owner's possession, that self help is barred and why, with Section 6 turned against D, and then the two routes under Sections 5 and 6 with their limitation periods.
No. D cannot evict S by force, however clear his title may be. If he does, S can sue him under Section 6 and recover possession, and D will be turned out again.
Step 1. The law forbids self help against a person in settled possession.
Section 6(1) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963: "If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by suit, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit."
The words "notwithstanding any other title" are the whole point. In a Section 6 suit the only questions are whether the plaintiff was in possession and whether he was dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law. D's ownership would be irrelevant and could not even be tried.
Step 2. So forcible eviction would reverse the parties' positions. S, having been physically thrown out, could sue D under Section 6 within six months, and would succeed on proof of possession alone. D would be ordered to restore possession, and would then have to bring a fresh suit on title under Section 5 to get it back lawfully. He would have lost time, costs and the moral advantage.
Step 3. Forcible entry may also attract criminal liability, for criminal trespass, house trespass and criminal intimidation, and D may be met with proceedings under Section 145 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, now Section 164 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which empowers a magistrate to preserve possession where a dispute is likely to cause a breach of the peace.
One qualification, in D's favour. Section 6 protects settled possession, not the momentary possession of a rank trespasser. The courts have held that a true owner may remove a trespasser who has just entered and has not settled in. But S is not a fresh trespasser: he has been in the flat lawfully for three years as caretaker, so his possession is settled and Section 6 protects him. D must go to court.
D should sue for recovery of possession, and he has two routes.
Route 1. Section 6, the summary possessory suit. Available if D can say that he was dispossessed without his consent and otherwise than in due course of law.
This works because a caretaker's possession is the owner's possession in law. S was left in charge on D's behalf; he is a licensee or servant in permissive occupation, with no interest in the property, and his occupation was D's occupation. The moment S refused to vacate on D's return, he excluded D, and that is a dispossession.
Route 2. Section 5, the ordinary suit on title. "A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908."
Ancillary relief in either suit:
A point to note. S is a caretaker, not a tenant. If he were a tenant, the Maharashtra Rent Control Act, 1999, would apply, D would have to prove a statutory ground of eviction before the Small Causes Court, and neither Section 5 nor Section 6 would be available in the ordinary way. S may well claim to be a tenant for that reason, and D should be advised to plead and prove the caretaker arrangement carefully.
Answer
(b) What do you mean by discharge of Contract? State various modes of Discharge of Contract.
For full marks, cover: that the answer turns on whether the store had already accepted, Sections 5 and 6 if it had not, Section 62 if it had, and then the six modes of discharge.
The facts do not say whether the General Store had accepted the order for 5 kilograms before A telephoned again. That single fact decides the case, so a complete answer takes both alternatives.
Alternative A. If the store had not yet accepted the order.
A's order was a proposal under Section 2(a). Under Section 5, "a proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards", and under Section 6(1) a proposal is revoked "by the communication of notice of revocation by the proposer to the other party".
A's second call, made "shortly after" the first, communicated a notice of revocation of the 5 kilogram order and made a fresh proposal for 7 kilograms. The earlier order therefore stands revoked, no contract for 5 kilograms ever came into existence, and neither party is bound by it. The store cannot deliver 5 kilograms and charge for them.
Alternative B. If the store had already accepted the order.
A contract for 5 kilograms had come into being, and A could not undo it unilaterally. It could then be discharged only by mutual consent under Section 62:
Either way the store's consent is essential. If the store agreed, "the original contract need not be performed" (Section 62), and the 5 kilogram contract is discharged. If the store refused, that contract stands, and A's refusal to take delivery would be a breach, for which the store could claim compensation under Section 73, measured by the difference between the contract price and the market price.
In practice Alternative A is the likelier reading, since the call was made "shortly after" the order and before any delivery, and shop orders of this kind are ordinarily accepted by dispatch.
The second communication is, on either view, a fresh proposal, binding only when the store signifies its assent under Section 2(b) or accepts by performing the conditions of the proposal under Section 8, that is by dispatching 7 kilograms. It is not a counter offer in the Hyde v. Wrench sense, because it comes from the same party who made the original proposal; a counter offer is a reply by the offeree that varies the terms.
Discharge of a contract means the termination of the contractual relation, so that the parties are freed from the obligations they undertook. There are six modes.
1. By performance (Sections 37 to 61). Section 37 requires the parties to perform, or offer to perform, their promises. Section 38: a promisor who offers to perform and is refused is not responsible for non performance and does not lose his rights. Sections 42 to 45 govern joint promises, 46 to 50 time and place, 55 time as the essence, and 59 to 61 appropriation of payments.
2. By mutual agreement or consent (Sections 62 to 67). Novation, rescission and alteration under Section 62; remission under Section 63, needing no consideration in India; waiver; merger; and Section 67, excusing a promisor whom the promisee has not afforded reasonable facilities for performance.
3. By impossibility of performance (Section 56). Initial impossibility makes the agreement void; supervening impossibility, that is frustration, makes the contract void. Grounds: destruction of the subject matter (Taylor v. Caldwell, 1863), death or personal incapacity (Robinson v. Davison, 1871), supervening illegality, non occurrence of the basis of the contract (Krell v. Henry, 1903), and war. Not grounds: commercial hardship, difficulty, strikes, a third party's default, and self induced impossibility. Section 65 requires restitution.
4. By lapse of time (Limitation Act, 1963). Three years for a suit on a breach of contract.
5. By operation of law. Death where personal skill is essential; insolvency; merger; material alteration of a written contract by one party without the other's consent.
6. By breach (Sections 39, 73 to 75). Actual and anticipatory breach. Section 39 entitles the promisee to put an end to the contract where the other has refused to perform or disabled himself from performing in entirety. Hochster v. De La Tour (1853) permits an immediate suit.
Remedies for breach: rescission with compensation under Section 75; damages under Sections 73 and 74; quantum meruit; and specific performance or injunction under the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Q.D: Answer the Following in Detail
Any 2 · (24 Marks - 12 marks each)
Answer
For full marks, cover: Sections 5 and 6 in full, the comparison table, the case law on settled possession and self help, and the injunctions that protect possession.
The Specific Relief Act, 1963, deals with the recovery of possession of immovable property in Sections 5 and 6, in Chapter I of Part II. The scheme offers two routes, one founded on title and one on possession.
"A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908."
Features:
6(1). "If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by suit, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit."
6(2). No suit shall be brought (a) after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession, or (b) against the Government.
6(3). No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in such a suit, nor shall any review be allowed.
6(4). "Nothing in this section shall bar any person from suing to establish his title to such property and to recover possession thereof."
Features:
| Basis | Section 5 | Section 6 |
|---|---|---|
| Nature | Suit based on title | Summary possessory suit |
| What must be proved | The plaintiff's title and right to possession | Previous possession and wrongful dispossession only |
| Defence of title | The whole issue | Wholly excluded |
| Basis | Section 5 | Section 6 |
|---|---|---|
| Limitation | 12 years, Article 65, Limitation Act, 1963 | 6 months from dispossession, Section 6(2)(a) |
| Against the Government | Maintainable | Barred, Section 6(2)(b) |
| Appeal or review | Lies, as in an ordinary suit | Barred, Section 6(3) |
| Procedure | Ordinary suit under the Code of Civil Procedure | Summary, disposed of quickly |
| Who may sue | The person entitled to possession, ordinarily the owner | Any person in settled possession, even one with no title |
| Effect of the decree | Settles title between the parties | Settles possession only; the loser may still sue on title |
Where the plaintiff is still in possession but is being interfered with, the remedy is an injunction: a perpetual injunction under Section 38(3), where there is no standard for ascertaining the damage or compensation would not be adequate; a mandatory injunction under Section 39 to undo an encroachment; and a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX, Rules 1 and 2, of the Code of Civil Procedure, to hold the position during the suit. Section 22 allows possession to be claimed in a suit for specific performance, if specifically claimed.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning of breach, actual and anticipatory with Section 39 and Hochster v. De La Tour, then each of the five remedies with its sections and cases, giving the most space to damages under Sections 73 and 74.
A breach of contract occurs when a party, without lawful excuse, fails or refuses to perform what he has promised, performs defectively, or disables himself from performing.
The duty to perform is imposed by Section 37: the parties must either perform, or offer to perform, their respective promises, unless performance is dispensed with or excused. A failure that is excused, for example by frustration under Section 56 or by the promisee's refusal of a valid tender under Section 38, is not a breach.
1. Actual breach, occurring when performance is due, or during performance.
2. Anticipatory breach, occurring before the time for performance arrives, either by express repudiation or by a party disabling himself from performing, for example by selling to a third person the thing he had contracted to sell.
Section 39: "When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing, his promise in its entirety, the promisee may put an end to the contract, unless he has signified, by words or conduct, his acquiescence in its continuance."
Hochster v. De La Tour (1853): a courier engaged from 1 June was told on 11 May that his services were not required, and was held entitled to sue at once.
The election on an anticipatory breach: the aggrieved party may accept the repudiation and sue immediately, damages being assessed at the date of repudiation; or he may keep the contract alive, in which case it remains alive for both parties, and if a frustrating event intervenes before the due date the contract is discharged and he recovers nothing: Avery v. Bowden (1855).
1. Rescission of the contract (Sections 39 and 75). The aggrieved party may put an end to the contract and is absolved from performing his own side. Section 75: "A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage which he has sustained through the non fulfilment of the contract." He may also sue under Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, to have the rescission adjudged.
2. Damages (Sections 73 and 74).
Section 73: compensation for loss which naturally arose in the usual course of things from the breach, or which the parties knew when they made the contract to be likely to result from it; and no compensation for remote and indirect loss. This codifies Hadley v. Baxendale (1854) and its two rules.
Kinds of damages:
Section 74: where a sum is named in the contract as payable on breach, or there is any stipulation by way of penalty, the aggrieved party is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named, whether or not actual damage is proved. India abolishes the English distinction between liquidated damages and a penalty: Fateh Chand v. Balkishan Das (1963 SC); Maula Bux v. Union of India (1969 SC); Kailash Nath Associates v. Delhi Development Authority (2015 SC).
Duty to mitigate. The Explanation to Section 73 requires the court to take into account the means which existed of remedying the inconvenience. The injured party must take reasonable steps to minimise his loss, cannot recover for a loss he could have avoided, and may recover the reasonable expenses of mitigation.
3. Suit upon quantum meruit. Quantum meruit means "as much as is earned", a claim for reasonable remuneration for work actually done, brought outside the contract. It lies where the contract is discovered to be void or becomes void (Section 65), where the other party prevents completion or breaches the contract, under a divisible contract, and where an express contract is abandoned by consent. Section 70 supports it where a person lawfully does something for another, not intending to do so gratuitously, and the other enjoys the benefit. Craven-Ellis v. Canons Ltd. (1936).
4. Suit for specific performance. Under Chapter II of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. Since the 2018 Amendment, Section 10 provides that specific performance shall be enforced, subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16. It is the natural remedy where damages are inadequate, typically for immovable property or goods with no market substitute. It is barred for contracts requiring continuous supervision, contracts dependent on personal qualifications, contracts determinable in nature, and where the plaintiff cannot prove readiness and willingness under Section 16(c). Section 20 now offers substituted performance after thirty days' notice as an alternative.
5. Suit for injunction. Under Sections 36 to 42 of the Specific Relief Act, temporary or perpetual, to restrain a party from doing what he promised not to do. Its most important use in contract is Section 42, which allows the court to enforce a negative covenant by injunction even where the affirmative agreement cannot be specifically enforced: Lumley v. Wagner (1852); Niranjan Shankar Golikari v. The Century Spinning and Manufacturing Co. Ltd. (1967 SC).
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 2(d) and Currie v. Misa, the essentials with their cases, the rule in Section 25 and the maxim, then every exception with its conditions and case, and close with adequacy and privity.
Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or to abstain from doing, something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise."
Currie v. Misa (1875): "some right, interest, profit or benefit accruing to the one party, or some forbearance, detriment, loss or responsibility given, suffered or undertaken by the other." Sir Frederick Pollock's shorter formulation is that consideration is "the price for which the promise of the other is bought".
Section 25 opens: "An agreement made without consideration is void", subject to the exceptions in that section. The maxim is ex nudo pacto non oritur actio, out of a bare promise no action arises. Section 10 carries the same requirement, listing "a lawful consideration" among the essentials of a contract.
In Section 25 itself:
1. Natural love and affection. Section 25(1). Valid if the agreement is in writing, registered, made on account of natural love and affection, and between parties standing in a near relation to each other. All four conditions are necessary.
2. Compensation for past voluntary service. Section 25(2). A promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor, or something the promisor was legally compellable to do. No writing is needed.
3. Promise to pay a time barred debt. Section 25(3). A promise in writing and signed by the person to be charged, or by his authorised agent, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law of limitation.
4. Completed gift. Explanation 1 to Section 25. "Nothing in this section shall affect the validity, as between the donor and the donee, of any gift actually made."
Elsewhere in the Act:
5. Agency. Section 185: "No consideration is necessary to create an agency."
6. Guarantee. Section 127: "Anything done, or any promise made, for the benefit of the principal debtor, may be a sufficient consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee."
7. Remission. Section 63: a promisee may dispense with or remit performance, extend the time, or accept any satisfaction he thinks fit. No consideration is required, a deliberate departure from Foakes v. Beer.
8. Gratuitous bailment. Section 148.
Recognised by the courts:
9. Charitable subscriptions, where the promisee has, on the faith of the promise, undertaken a liability. Kedar Nath v. Gorie Mohamed (1886 Cal), where municipal commissioners had engaged a contractor on the faith of the subscriptions; contrast Abdul Aziz v. Masum Ali (1914 All), where nothing had been done.
Under other statutes:
10. A negotiable instrument is presumed to have been made for consideration under Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
Adequacy. Explanation 2 to Section 25: an agreement is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate, but the inadequacy may be taken into account in deciding whether the promisor's consent was freely given.
Privity. Privity of consideration is not required in India, but privity of contract is: Dunlop v. Selfridge (1915); M.C. Chacko v. State Bank of Travancore (1970 SC), subject to the exceptions of a trust or charge on immovable property, a family arrangement, acknowledgement, agency, and covenants running with land.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and essentials, Section 30 in both limbs with both exceptions, the effect on collateral transactions with Gherulal Parakh and the Maharashtra position, the stakeholder rule, and the distinctions from a contingent contract, insurance and a speculative transaction.
A wager is a promise to pay money or money's worth on the determination of an uncertain event, where each party stands to win or lose according to how it turns out, and neither party has any interest in the event other than the sum he will win or lose.
The classical definition is Hawkins J.'s in Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1892): a contract by which two persons, professing to hold opposite views touching the issue of a future uncertain event, mutually agree that, dependent on the determination of that event, one shall win from the other a sum of money, neither of the contracting parties having any other interest in that contract than the sum or stake he will so win or lose, there being no other real consideration for the making of such contract by either of the parties.
Essentials:
"Agreements by way of wager are void; and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain event on which any wager is made."
The section has two limbs: the agreement is void, and no suit lies either for the winnings or for anything entrusted to a stakeholder.
Exception 1. Horse racing. The section does not render unlawful "a subscription or contribution, or agreement to subscribe or contribute, made or entered into for or toward any plate, prize or sum of money, of the value or amount of five hundred rupees or upwards, to be awarded to the winner or winners of any horse race".
Exception 2. Lotteries. Nothing in the section "shall be deemed to legalise any transaction connected with horse racing to which the provisions of section 294A of the Indian Penal Code apply", and the section does not affect any law relating to lotteries.
| Basis | Wagering agreement | Contingent contract |
|---|---|---|
| Section | 30 | 31 to 36 |
| Validity | Void | Valid and enforceable |
| Interest in the event | None beyond the stake | A real interest |
| Nature of the promises | Mutual and opposite: one wins exactly what the other loses | Not necessarily reciprocal; performance is merely postponed |
| Basis | Wagering agreement | Contingent contract |
|---|---|---|
| The event | The sole determining factor, created for the wager | Collateral to the contract |
| Example | A bet on a cricket match | Contract of insurance |
Every wagering agreement is contingent in form, but not every contingent contract is a wager. The difference lies entirely in interest.
A contract of insurance is not a wager, although both depend on an uncertain event.
A contract for the sale of shares or commodities is valid if delivery is intended, and is a wager if the parties intend only to settle differences in price. The test is the intention of the parties, not the form of the contract, and the burden lies on the party alleging that it was a wager.
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This volume prints the 2022-23 Contract I paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 22 questions.
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10 August 2026, revised 11 August 2026.
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