Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Contract I
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2018-19 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
Mumbai University Solved Question Papers
Contract I
Previous Year Question Paper with Solution
BLS LLB 5 Years · Sem 5
2018-19 Examination
munotes.in
Mumbai
First published on munotes.in on 10 August 2026.
Published by munotes.in, Mumbai.
Model answers written and edited by the munotes.in editorial desk.
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munotes.in is an independent study resource for students of the University of Mumbai. It is not affiliated with the University of Mumbai, and is not endorsed by it.
The University does not publish an official answer key for this paper. The answers in this volume are model answers, written to show how a full-mark answer is built. They are a study aid, not an authority on what an examiner marked.
The question paper reproduced here is the paper as set by the University of Mumbai at the 2018-19 examination.
The answers in this volume state the law as it stands today, not as it stood when this paper was set. That matters in this subject: the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, took effect on 1 October 2018 and rewrote Sections 10, 14, 16 and 20, so specific performance is now the rule rather than a discretionary remedy. Where a question asks about a provision that has since been replaced, the answer gives the provision as it then stood and the present position, and says which is which. A repeated question from an older paper can therefore be answered from these pages as they are written.
The questions below are the paper as the University of Mumbai set it at the 2018-19 examination, in the order it was set.
MarksPage
MarksPage
The questions in this volume are the questions asked at the 2018-19 examination, reproduced as the University of Mumbai set them, in the order it set them. Nothing has been reworded, added or left out. Only the answers are ours. See the original question paper.
Duration 3 hours · Total marks 100 · 25 questions answered
Instructions printed on the paper
How to use this volume
Solve the paper first, under exam conditions and against the clock. Then read the answers here and mark your own. Reading a solution before attempting the question feels productive and teaches very little, because recognising an answer is not the same as being able to write one.
Q.1: Answer the following
in not more than two sentences · (20 Marks - 2 marks each)
Answer
Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void."
A void agreement is a nullity from the beginning, void ab initio. It creates no rights and no obligations, and no suit lies upon it by either party. It can never be ratified.
Distinguish it from a voidable contract under Section 2(i), which is enforceable at the option of one party and is valid and binding until avoided; and from a contract which becomes void under Section 2(j), which was valid when made and later ceased to be enforceable, as under Section 56.
Answer
A tender, or attempted performance, is an offer by the promisor to perform his obligation. Section 38 provides that where a promisor offers to perform and the offer is not accepted, he is not responsible for non performance and does not thereby lose his rights under the contract.
Two essentials required by the section:
A third, where goods are tendered: the promisee must have a reasonable opportunity of seeing that the thing offered is the thing the promisor is bound to deliver. An offer to one of several joint promisees has the same effect as an offer to all.
Answer
Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void."
So an uncertain agreement is void: it creates no rights and no obligations, and no suit lies upon it. Certainty of terms is an essential of a valid contract under Section 10, because a court cannot enforce a promise whose content it cannot ascertain.
Illustrations: an agreement to sell "a hundred tons of oil", with nothing to show what kind, is void; but where the seller is a dealer in coconut oil only, the nature of his trade makes the meaning certain and the agreement is good.
Answer
An invitation to offer, or invitation to treat, is a statement by which a person invites others to make proposals to him. It is not a proposal under Section 2(a) and cannot be accepted into a contract; the response to it is itself the offer.
Two examples:
Answer
The doctrine of privity of contract means that only a person who is a party to a contract can sue or be sued upon it. A stranger acquires no rights under it and incurs no liabilities, even if the contract was made for his benefit.
Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. Ltd. v. Selfridge and Co. Ltd. (1915); in India, M.C. Chacko v. State Bank of Travancore (1970 SC).
It must be distinguished from privity of consideration, which is not required in India, since Section 2(d) allows consideration to move from "the promisee or any other person": Chinnaya v. Ramayya (1882 Mad).
Exceptions: a beneficiary under a trust or charge on immovable property (Khwaja Muhammad Khan v. Husaini Begum, 1910 PC); a marriage settlement or family arrangement; acknowledgement or estoppel; agency; and covenants running with land (Tulk v. Moxhay, 1848).
Answer
Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject."
The three requirements are:
Answer
Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, headed "Who may obtain specific performance", lists, besides a party to the contract:
Answer
Section 32 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. What instruments may be partially cancelled. "Where an instrument is evidence of different rights or different obligations, the court may, in a proper case, cancel it in part and allow it to stand for the residue."
So an instrument may be cancelled in part only where it embodies rights or obligations of distinct and severable kinds, so that the objectionable part can be removed while the rest continues to have effect.
It is read with Section 31, under which a person against whom a written instrument is void or voidable, and who has reasonable apprehension that it, if left outstanding, may cause him serious injury, may sue to have it adjudged void or voidable and delivered up and cancelled.
Answer
Section 27(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, lists four cases in which the court may refuse to rescind a contract:
Section 30 adds that on adjudging rescission the court may require the party to whom relief is granted to restore any benefit received and to make compensation as justice may require.
Answer
Section 6(2)(b): "No suit under this section shall be brought against the Government."
Section 6(1) gives a person dispossessed without his consent and otherwise than in due course of law a summary remedy to recover possession, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up. Section 6(2) limits it in two ways: the suit must be brought within six months of the dispossession, and it cannot be brought against the Government.
A person dispossessed by the Government must proceed by an ordinary suit on title under Section 5, or by a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution.
Q.2: Write Short Notes on
Any four · (20 Marks - 5 marks each)
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 31 with its three essentials, Sections 32 to 36 with the Act's illustrations, and the comparison with a wagering agreement.
Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872: "A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen."
Illustration: A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000 if B's house is burnt.
Essentials: performance depends on a future event; the event is uncertain; and it is collateral to the contract, being neither the performance promised nor the consideration.
Section 32. Contingent on an event happening: cannot be enforced unless and until that event has happened, and becomes void if the event becomes impossible. Illustration: A contracts to buy B's horse if A survives C; unenforceable unless C dies in A's lifetime.
Section 33. Contingent on an event not happening: enforceable when the happening of that event becomes impossible, and not before. Illustration: A agrees to pay B a sum if a certain ship does not return; enforceable if the ship sinks.
Section 34. Where the event is the future conduct of a living person, it is deemed impossible when that person does anything rendering it impossible that he should so act within any definite time, or otherwise than under further contingencies. Illustration: A agrees to pay B if B marries C; C marries D; the marriage of B to C is now impossible, though D may die.
Section 35, first paragraph. Contingent on an event happening within a fixed time: void if the time expires without the event, or if it becomes impossible before. Illustration: payment if a ship returns within a year; void if the ship is burnt within the year.
Section 35, second paragraph. Contingent on an event not happening within a fixed time: enforceable when the time expires without the event, or when it becomes certain it will not happen.
Section 36. Contingent on an impossible event: void, whether the impossibility was known to the parties or not. Illustration: A agrees to pay B Rs. 1,000 if B marries A's daughter C; C was dead at the date of the agreement; the agreement is void.
| Basis | Contingent contract | Wagering agreement |
|---|---|---|
| Validity | Valid (Section 31) | Void (Section 30) |
| Interest in the event | A real interest apart from the stake | None beyond the stake |
| The event | Collateral to the contract | The sole determining factor |
| Example | Contract of insurance | A bet on a cricket match |
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definition and essentials, Section 30 in both limbs with both exceptions, the effect on collateral transactions with the Maharashtra position, and the stakeholder rule.
A wager is a promise to pay money or money's worth on the determination of an uncertain event, where each party stands to win or lose and neither has any interest in the event other than the sum he will win or lose.
Section 30: "Agreements by way of wager are void; and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain event on which any wager is made."
Essentials: an uncertain event, which may be past if its result is unknown to the parties; mutual chances of gain and loss; no interest in the event beyond the stake, which is the decisive element; no control by either party; and a promise to pay money or money's worth.
Exceptions in the section: a subscription or contribution of five hundred rupees or upwards towards a prize for a horse race; and laws relating to lotteries are unaffected.
Effect:
Distinguished from insurance: the insured has an insurable interest and the contract is one of indemnity; a wagerer has none. From a contingent contract: the parties to a contingent contract have a real interest and only performance is postponed. From a speculative transaction: a share or commodity contract is valid if delivery is intended, and a wager if the parties intend only to settle differences in price.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the definitions and the English distinction, Section 74 in full with its Explanation and Exception, and the Supreme Court decisions.
Liquidated damages are a sum named in the contract itself as payable on breach, being a genuine pre estimate by the parties of the probable loss.
A penalty is a sum fixed in terrorem, that is to frighten the party into performing, bearing no proportion to the likely loss.
In English law the distinction is decisive: liquidated damages are recoverable in full, and a penalty is irrecoverable.
Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. "When a contract has been broken, if a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of such breach, or if the contract contains any other stipulation by way of penalty, the party complaining of the breach is entitled, whether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused thereby, to receive from the party who has broken the contract reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named or, as the case may be, the penalty stipulated for."
Explanation. A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default may be a stipulation by way of penalty.
Exception. Where a person enters into a bail bond, recognizance or other instrument of the same nature, or gives a bond under any law or under the orders of the Government for the performance of a public duty, he is liable on breach to pay the whole sum mentioned.
The Indian position. Section 74 abolishes the English distinction. Whatever the clause is called, the court awards only reasonable compensation, and the named sum is a ceiling, not an entitlement.
Section 23 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963: a liquidated damages clause does not bar specific performance, unless it was meant to give the party the option of paying money instead of performing.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 34 with its conditions and proviso, Section 35 on the effect, what "legal character" means, and the discretionary nature of the relief.
A declaratory decree is a decree by which the court declares the plaintiff's legal character, or his right to any property, without ordering any consequential relief. Chapter VI of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, Sections 34 and 35.
Section 34. "Any person entitled to any legal character, or to any right as to any property, may institute a suit against any person denying, or interested to deny, his title to such character or right, and the court may in its discretion make therein a declaration that he is so entitled, and the plaintiff need not in such suit ask for any further relief:
Provided that no court shall make any such declaration where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so."
The Explanation provides that a trustee of property is a "person interested to deny" a title adverse to that of a person not in existence for whom, if in existence, he would be a trustee.
Conditions: the plaintiff must be entitled to a legal character or a right as to property; the defendant must be denying or interested in denying it; the plaintiff must not omit further relief he is able to seek; and the court must exercise its discretion.
"Legal character" means status: legitimacy, adoption, citizenship, membership of a caste or community, the holding of an office, or marital status.
Section 35. Effect. A declaration is binding only on the parties to the suit, on persons claiming through them respectively, and, where a party is a trustee, on the persons for whom he would be a trustee. It operates in personam, not in rem.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the 2018 Amendment as the framework, then Section 14, Section 11(2), Section 16, Section 17, Section 19's protection of a transferee, Section 9 and limitation.
This paper sits on the dividing line, so fix the date first. The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, came into force on 1 October 2018, and this paper was set in the 2018-19 session. Everything below states the law as amended, which is the law a student answering today must give.
Since that amendment, Section 10 provides that specific performance shall be enforced by the court subject only to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16. The court's general discretion is gone, so the defences are now the statutory bars and nothing else. That framework should open the answer.
What the amendment took away. Before 1 October 2018 the old Section 20 gave the court a general discretion to refuse a decree, and three of the commonest defences lived in it: that the contract gave the plaintiff an unfair advantage (old Section 20(2)(a)); that performance would cause the defendant hardship he did not foresee (old Section 20(2)(b)); and that the circumstances made enforcement inequitable (old Section 20(2)(c)). The old Section 10 allowed a defendant to argue that damages were an adequate remedy. None of those four pleas survives, and a textbook printed before 2018 will still teach them.
1. The contract is one that cannot be specifically enforced. Section 14.
2. The contract was made by a trustee in breach of trust. Section 11(2).
3. Personal bars against the plaintiff. Section 16. Relief shall not be enforced in favour of a person who (a) has obtained substituted performance; (b) has become incapable of performing, or violates an essential term, or acts in fraud of the contract, or wilfully acts at variance with the relation intended; or (c) fails to prove that he has performed, or has always been ready and willing to perform, the essential terms on his part. Explanation (ii) requires readiness and willingness to be averred and proved.
4. Want of title in the plaintiff. Section 17. A vendor or lessor who knew he had no title, or who cannot give a title free from reasonable doubt, cannot enforce.
5. The defendant is a protected transferee. Section 19(b). Relief cannot be enforced against a transferee for value who has paid his money in good faith and without notice of the original contract.
6. The ordinary contractual defences. Section 9. "Except as otherwise provided herein, where any relief is claimed under this Chapter in respect of a contract, the person against whom the relief is claimed may plead by way of defence any ground which is available to him under any law relating to contracts." So want of consideration, incapacity, absence of free consent, uncertainty, illegality and frustration are all available.
7. Limitation. The suit must be brought within three years under Article 54 of the Limitation Act, 1963, from the date fixed for performance or from notice of refusal.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Section 42 with the death rule, then Sections 43, 44 and 45, and the departure from English law.
Section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Devolution of joint liabilities. "When two or more persons have made a joint promise, then, unless a contrary intention appears by the contract, all such persons, during their joint lives, and, after the death of any of them, his representative jointly with the survivor or survivors, and, after the death of the last survivor, the representatives of all jointly, must fulfil the promise."
So joint liability does not die with a joint promisor: it devolves on his legal representatives, who are liable jointly with the survivors, though only to the extent of the estate that comes into their hands.
Section 43. Any one of joint promisors may be compelled to perform.
Illustration: A, B and C jointly promise to pay D Rs. 3,000. C is compelled to pay the whole. A is insolvent, but his assets are sufficient to pay one half of his debts. C is entitled to receive Rs. 500 from A's estate and Rs. 1,250 from B.
Section 44. Effect of release of one joint promisor. A release of one joint promisor by the promisee does not discharge the other joint promisors, nor does it free the released promisor from his responsibility to the other joint promisors.
Section 45. Devolution of joint rights. Where a person has made a promise to several persons jointly, then, unless a contrary intention appears, the right to claim performance rests, as between him and them, with them during their joint lives, and after the death of any of them, with his representative jointly with the survivors, and after the death of the last survivor, with the representatives of all jointly.
Q.3: Answer the following by giving reasons
Any two · (12 Marks - 6 marks each)
Answer
For full marks, cover: what rescission is under both Acts, then that concealment when asked is active fraud under Section 17(2), not merely silence, and the remedies open to B.
Rescission is the setting aside or cancellation of a contract, so that it is treated as if it had never been made and the parties are restored, so far as possible, to their former position.
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872:
Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963:
Yes. B can rescind the sale. A's conduct is fraud, and this case is stronger than ordinary non disclosure because A concealed the fact when he was ASKED.
Step 1. This is not mere silence; it is active concealment.
The facts say A "conceals this fact from B when asked". That takes the case out of the Explanation to Section 17 altogether, and puts it inside the section itself.
Section 17(2) defines fraud to include "the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact", where done with intent to deceive or to induce the other to enter into the contract. A had direct personal knowledge of the right of passage, was asked about it, and concealed it. That is active concealment on its plainest facts. A false answer to a direct question would also fall under Section 17(1), the suggestion as a fact of that which is not true.
Step 2. Even if it were treated as silence, the duty to speak applies.
The Explanation to Section 17 provides that mere silence is not fraud unless it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or his silence is equivalent to speech. Both exceptions are satisfied here:
Step 3. B's remedies. Section 19 gives him an election:
Step 4. The proviso to Section 19 does not save A.
The proviso bars avoidance where the party had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence, but it applies to misrepresentation, or fraud consisting of silence. It does not protect a party guilty of active fraud. A person who conceals a fact when directly asked cannot afterwards say his victim should have checked.
Answer
Due to negligence of the crew member 'A' lost his luggage. (i) What is 'reasonable notice of terms' under Standard Form Agreements?
(ii) Can the company be held liable for the loss?
For full marks, cover: the rule of reasonable notice with the four cases, then apply Henderson v. Stevenson, which is this exact fact pattern, and conclude that the company is liable.
This problem is Henderson v. Stevenson (1875) with the names removed. Naming it is worth a mark on its own.
A standard form agreement is one whose terms are drawn up in advance by one party and offered to the other on a take it or leave it basis. Because the customer does not negotiate and often does not read the terms, the law insists that the party relying on them show he gave reasonable notice.
The rule. Parker v. South Eastern Railway (1877). The party relying on printed conditions must show that he took reasonable steps to bring them to the notice of the other before or at the time the contract was made. Three questions were framed:
If the answer to the third is no, the conditions do not form part of the contract.
The rules that follow:
Yes. The company is liable for the loss of A's luggage. The exemption clause does not bind him.
Step 1. Henderson v. Stevenson (1875) is directly in point. The plaintiff bought a steamer ticket from Dublin to Whitehaven. On the face of the ticket were only the names of the ports; on the back was a condition that the company would not be liable for loss, injury or delay to the passenger or his luggage. The plaintiff never looked at the back, and nothing on the face directed him to it. The ship was wrecked through the fault of the company's servants and his luggage was lost. Held, he was entitled to recover, because the condition did not bind him for want of reasonable notice.
Step 2. Apply the Parker test.
Step 3. The company's liability.
Step 4. Two arguments the company might raise, and why they fail.
Answer
(ii) Will 'B' succeed in the above circumstances?
For full marks, cover: Section 2(b) and the essentials of acceptance, then the general offer under Section 8, the rule that there can be no acceptance in ignorance of the offer, Lalman Shukla, and the contrast with Harbhajan Lal.
Section 2(b): "When the person to whom the proposal is made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted. A proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise."
The essentials of a valid acceptance:
Anson's image captures the effect: "Acceptance is to a proposal what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder. It produces something which cannot be recalled or undone."
No. B will not succeed. He cannot claim the Rs. 5,00,000.
Step 1. The newspaper announcement is a general offer. An offer may be made to the world at large and is accepted by whoever performs its conditions, under Section 8. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893) is the foundation.
Step 2. But there can be no acceptance without knowledge of the offer. Section 2(b) requires the acceptor to "signify his assent", and a person who does not know an offer exists cannot assent to it. Under Section 4, the communication of a proposal is complete only when it comes to his knowledge, so until B knew of the reward there was nothing to accept.
Step 3. The case is directly covered by Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913 All).
Facts. The defendant's nephew absconded. The defendant sent his servants, including the plaintiff Lalman Shukla, to search for him. After the plaintiff had left, the defendant issued handbills offering a reward of Rs. 501 to anyone who traced the boy. The plaintiff found the boy, learnt of the reward only afterwards, and sued for it.
Held. The suit was dismissed: there can be no acceptance without knowledge of the offer, so no contract came into existence. The court added a second ground, that the plaintiff, being a servant already sent to search, was under a pre existing obligation, and performance of an existing duty is no consideration.
Step 4. Applying it. B acted "without the knowledge of the above reward". There was therefore no acceptance, no agreement and no contract, and his later discovery cannot work backwards to convert a completed act into an acceptance. A is under no contractual liability.
Section 25(2) provides that an agreement made without consideration is not void if it is "a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor". So if A now promises to pay B, that promise is enforceable without any fresh consideration and without writing, because B's act was voluntary and was done for A.
B might also attempt Section 70, which allows a person who lawfully does anything for another, not intending to do so gratuitously, and where the other enjoys the benefit, to be compensated. The claim is weak, since returning a child is not readily valued, and it would yield only reasonable compensation, never the promised sum.
The position would reverse entirely. Harbhajan Lal v. Harcharan Lal (1925 All) decides it on almost identical facts: a father issued handbills offering a reward for finding his absconding son; the plaintiff found the boy with knowledge of the offer and was held entitled to the reward, the handbill being a general offer accepted by performance.
Q.4: Answer the following
Any four · (48 Marks - 12 marks each)
Answer
For full marks, cover: the meaning of breach and its two kinds with Section 39, then Section 73 and the two rules in Hadley v. Baxendale, the kinds of damages, Section 74, the duty to mitigate, and the rules of measurement.
A breach of contract occurs when a party, without lawful excuse, fails or refuses to perform what he has promised, performs defectively, or disables himself from performing. The duty to perform arises from Section 37. A failure that is excused, for example by frustration under Section 56 or by refusal of a valid tender under Section 38, is not a breach.
Actual breach occurs at or during the time for performance. Anticipatory breach occurs before it, by express repudiation or by a party disabling himself. Section 39 entitles the promisee to put an end to the contract where the other has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing, his promise in its entirety, unless he has acquiesced in its continuance; and Hochster v. De La Tour (1853) allows an immediate suit.
Damages are the monetary compensation payable to the injured party, and the governing principle is restitutio in integrum: he is to be placed, so far as money can do it, in the position he would have occupied had the contract been performed.
Section 73. The party who suffers by the breach is entitled to compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby which:
"Such compensation is not to be given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach." The Explanation requires the court, in estimating the loss, to take into account the means which existed of remedying the inconvenience caused by the non performance.
This codifies Hadley v. Baxendale (1854): damages should be such as may fairly and reasonably be considered as arising naturally from the breach, or such as may reasonably be supposed to have been in the contemplation of both parties at the time they made the contract as the probable result of its breach.
The facts: the crankshaft of the plaintiffs' mill broke, the defendant carriers delayed its delivery, and the mill stood idle. The lost profits were irrecoverable, because the carriers had not been told the mill was stopped for want of the shaft.
Victoria Laundry (Windsor) Ltd. v. Newman Industries Ltd. (1949) applies both rules: ordinary loss of profit on the late delivery of a boiler was recoverable; the exceptional profits from unknown dyeing contracts were not.
1. Remoteness. Only loss within the two rules is recoverable; remote and indirect loss is not.
2. Notice of special circumstances. Special damages are recoverable only if the special circumstances were communicated at the time of contracting.
3. Compensation, not punishment. Damages are compensatory. Exemplary damages are not awarded in contract, save in two cases: breach of a promise to marry, and wrongful dishonour of a cheque by a banker where the customer has funds, where damages are inversely proportionate to the amount of the cheque.
4. Actual loss must be shown. Where a legal right is infringed but no loss suffered, only nominal damages are awarded.
5. The duty to mitigate. The injured party must take reasonable steps to minimise his loss, cannot recover a loss he could have avoided, and may recover the reasonable expenses of mitigation.
6. Measurement. In a sale of goods, the measure is the difference between the contract price and the market price at the date of the breach. In an anticipatory breach accepted at once, damages are assessed at the date of repudiation.
7. A named sum is a ceiling. Section 74: where a sum is named, or there is a stipulation by way of penalty, the party is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named, whether or not actual damage is proved. India abolishes the English distinction between liquidated damages and a penalty: Fateh Chand v. Balkishan Das (1963 SC); Maula Bux v. Union of India (1969 SC); Kailash Nath Associates v. Delhi Development Authority (2015 SC).
8. Section 75: a party who rightfully rescinds is entitled to compensation for damage sustained through the non fulfilment of the contract.
Ordinary or general, arising naturally; special, on communicated circumstances; nominal, where a right is infringed but no loss suffered; vindictive or exemplary, in the two exceptional cases; liquidated damages and penalty under Section 74; and damages for inconvenience and, in a narrow class, mental distress.
Answer
For full marks, cover: all six modes with their sections, and finish with the remedies for breach.
Discharge of a contract means the termination of the contractual relation, so that the parties are freed from the obligations they undertook. There are six modes.
1. By performance (Sections 37 to 61). Section 37 requires the parties to perform, or offer to perform, their promises. Section 38: a promisor who offers to perform and is refused is not responsible for non performance and does not lose his rights; the tender must be unconditional, at a proper time and place, of the whole of what is due, with an opportunity to see he is able and willing and, for goods, to inspect. Sections 40 to 45 on who must perform and on joint promises; 46 to 50 time and place; 55 time as the essence; 59 to 61 appropriation of payments.
2. By mutual agreement or consent (Sections 62 to 67). Novation, rescission and alteration under Section 62; remission under Section 63, needing no consideration in India; waiver; merger; and Section 67, excusing a promisor whom the promisee has not afforded reasonable facilities for performance.
3. By impossibility of performance (Section 56). Initial impossibility makes the agreement void; supervening impossibility, that is frustration, makes the contract void; and a promisor who knew or might with reasonable diligence have known of the impossibility must compensate a promisee who did not. Grounds: destruction of the subject matter (Taylor v. Caldwell, 1863); death or personal incapacity (Robinson v. Davison, 1871); supervening illegality; non occurrence of the basis of the contract (Krell v. Henry, 1903); war. Not grounds: commercial hardship, difficulty, strikes, a third party's default, self induced impossibility. Section 65 requires restitution. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur and Co. (1954 SC) holds Section 56 to be a positive rule of law.
4. By lapse of time (Limitation Act, 1963). Three years for a suit on a breach of contract; three years for specific performance under Article 54. A written and signed promise to pay a time barred debt is enforceable under Section 25(3).
5. By operation of law. Death where personal skill is essential; insolvency; merger; material alteration of a written contract by one party without the other's consent; unauthorised cancellation of an instrument.
6. By breach (Sections 39, 73 to 75). Actual and anticipatory breach. Section 39 entitles the promisee to put an end to the contract where the other has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing, in entirety. Hochster v. De La Tour (1853) permits an immediate suit.
Remedies for breach: rescission with compensation under Section 75; damages under Sections 73 and 74; quantum meruit; and specific performance or injunction under the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Answer
For full marks, cover: the heading of Chapter V and what a quasi contract is, then each of Sections 68 to 72 with its conditions and illustrations and a case, and finish with the theoretical basis and the distinction from a true contract.
"Of certain relations resembling those created by contract" is the heading of Chapter V of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, and it covers Sections 68 to 72. These are what English law calls quasi contracts.
A quasi contract is an obligation imposed by law, not created by agreement, on a person who has been unjustly enriched at another's expense. There is no offer, no acceptance and no consideration; the law creates the obligation and gives the same remedy as if there had been a contract.
The Indian drafters deliberately avoided the phrase "quasi contract", preferring the descriptive heading, because the obligation is not contractual at all. It is founded on the maxim nemo debet locupletari ex aliena jactura, no man should grow rich out of another person's loss.
"If a person, incapable of entering into a contract, or anyone whom he is legally bound to support, is supplied by another person with necessaries suited to his condition in life, the person who has furnished such supplies is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of such incapable person."
Illustrations: (a) A supplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. A is entitled to be reimbursed from B's property. (b) A supplies the wife and children of B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to their condition in life. A is entitled to be reimbursed from B's property.
Key points: the claim lies against the property, not the person, so if there is no property there is no claim; "necessaries suited to his condition in life" is a relative standard and requires that the person be not already sufficiently supplied; and the amount recoverable is a reasonable sum, not any agreed price. Nash v. Inman (1908).
"A person who is interested in the payment of money which another is bound by law to pay, and who therefore pays it, is entitled to be reimbursed by the other."
Illustration: B holds land in Bengal on a lease granted by A, the zamindar. The revenue payable by A to the Government being in arrear, his land is advertised for sale. Under the revenue law, the sale will annul B's lease. B, to prevent the sale and the consequent annulment of his own lease, pays the Government the sum due from A. A is bound to make good to B the amount so paid.
Conditions: the payer must be interested in the payment; he must not himself be bound to pay; the other must be bound by law to pay; and the payment must be made to another person and not to himself.
"Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered."
Illustration: A, a tradesman, leaves goods at B's house by mistake. B treats the goods as his own. He is bound to pay A for them.
Conditions: the act must be lawful; it must be done for another; it must be done not intending to do so gratuitously; and the other must enjoy the benefit of it.
State of West Bengal v. B.K. Mondal and Sons (1962 SC): a contractor did work for the State under an arrangement that failed to satisfy Article 299 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court held he could recover compensation under Section 70, since the section creates an obligation independent of contract and is not defeated by the invalidity of the agreement.
"A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee."
His duties are those of a bailee under Sections 151 and 152; his rights are a lien for expenses (Section 168), a right to sue for an advertised reward, and a right of sale (Section 169) where the owner cannot be found with reasonable diligence, or refuses to pay the lawful charges, and the thing is perishing or the charges reach two thirds of its value. His title is good against all but the true owner: Armory v. Delamirie (1722).
"A person to whom money has been paid, or anything delivered, by mistake or under coercion, must repay or return it."
Illustrations: (a) A and B jointly owe 100 rupees to C. A alone pays the amount to C, and B, not knowing this fact, pays 100 rupees over again to C. C is bound to repay the amount to B. (b) A railway company refuses to deliver up certain goods to the consignee except upon the payment of an illegal charge for carriage. The consignee pays the sum charged in order to obtain the goods. He is entitled to recover so much of the charge as was illegally excessive.
The word "mistake" here has been held to include a mistake of law as well as of fact, on the ground that the section is unqualified.
The older explanation was the implied contract theory, that the law implies a promise to repay. The modern and better view is the principle of unjust enrichment: the obligation is imposed because it would be unjust for the defendant to retain the benefit, and no promise, express or implied, needs to be invented.
| Basis | Contract | Quasi contract |
|---|---|---|
| Source of the obligation | The agreement of the parties | Imposed by law |
| Consent | Essential | Not required |
| Consideration | Essential | Not required |
| Basis | Contract | Quasi contract |
|---|---|---|
| What is recovered | The contract price or damages | Reasonable compensation for the benefit conferred |
| Against whom | Only a party | The person enriched |
Answer
For full marks, cover: Sections 2(h) and 10, then each essential as a heading with its sections and cases.
Section 2(h): "An agreement enforceable by law is a contract." Section 2(e): "Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an agreement."
So Agreement + Enforceability at law = Contract. As Anson put it, all contracts are agreements, but all agreements are not contracts.
Section 10: "All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not hereby expressly declared to be void." It adds that nothing in the section affects any law requiring a contract to be in writing, attested or registered.
1. Offer and acceptance. A lawful offer (Section 2(a)) and a lawful acceptance (Section 2(b)), the acceptance being absolute and unqualified (Section 7(1)) and communicated (Sections 3 and 4). Hyde v. Wrench (1840) on counter offers; Felthouse v. Bindley (1862) on silence; Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913 All) on knowledge; Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893) on general offers; Harvey v. Facey (1893) on invitations to offer.
2. Intention to create legal relations. Not in the Act, but required by the courts. Balfour v. Balfour (1919); rebuttable, Merritt v. Merritt (1970); commercial agreements are presumed to be intended to bind.
3. Lawful consideration. Section 2(d) and Section 25. It must move at the desire of the promisor (Durga Prasad v. Baldeo, 1880 All); may move from the promisee or any other person (Chinnaya v. Ramayya, 1882 Mad); may be past, present or future; and need not be adequate but must be real (Explanation 2 to Section 25). Exceptions where none is needed: Sections 25(1), 25(2), 25(3), Explanation 1, Section 185, Section 127, Section 63, and charitable subscriptions (Kedar Nath v. Gorie Mohamed, 1886 Cal).
4. Capacity of the parties. Section 11: majority, soundness of mind (Section 12), and not disqualified by law. Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903 PC): a minor's agreement is void ab initio; no ratification; no estoppel; Section 68 for necessaries.
5. Free consent. Sections 13 and 14. Consensus ad idem, and consent not caused by coercion (15), undue influence (16), fraud (17), misrepresentation (18) or mistake (20 to 22). The first four make the contract voidable (Sections 19 and 19A); a bilateral mistake of essential fact makes it void; a unilateral mistake has no effect.
6. Lawful object and consideration. Section 23: not forbidden by law, not such as would defeat the provisions of any law, not fraudulent, not involving injury to the person or property of another, and not immoral or opposed to public policy. Section 24 on partial illegality.
7. Agreements not expressly declared void. Sections 26 to 30, 36 and 56: restraint of marriage, of trade, of legal proceedings; uncertain agreements; wagers; agreements contingent on an impossible event; and agreements to do an act impossible in itself.
8. Certainty and possibility of performance. Section 29 and Section 56, first paragraph.
9. Legal formalities. The Act generally requires no writing, but the saving in Section 10 preserves any law requiring writing, attestation or registration, as in Sections 25(1) and 25(3), the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and the Registration Act, 1908.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Sections 5 and 6 in full, the comparison table, the case law on settled possession, and the injunctions that protect possession.
The Specific Relief Act, 1963, deals with the recovery of possession of immovable property in Sections 5 and 6, offering two routes, one founded on title and one on possession.
"A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908."
6(1). "If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by suit, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit."
6(2). No suit shall be brought (a) after six months from the dispossession, or (b) against the Government.
6(3). No appeal and no review lies from any order or decree in such a suit.
6(4). Nothing bars any person from suing to establish his title and recovering possession on that basis.
| Basis | Section 5 | Section 6 |
|---|---|---|
| Nature | Suit based on title | Summary possessory suit |
| What must be proved | The plaintiff's title | Previous possession and wrongful dispossession |
| Defence of title | The whole issue | Wholly excluded |
| Limitation | 12 years, Article 65 | 6 months, Section 6(2)(a) |
| Against the Government | Maintainable | Barred, Section 6(2)(b) |
| Appeal or review | Lies | Barred, Section 6(3) |
| Who may sue | The person entitled to possession | Any person in settled possession, even without title |
| Effect of the decree | Settles title | Settles possession only |
Where the plaintiff is still in possession but is being interfered with, the remedy is an injunction: a perpetual injunction under Section 38(3), a mandatory injunction under Section 39 to undo an encroachment, and a temporary injunction under Order XXXIX, Rules 1 and 2, of the Code of Civil Procedure. Section 22 allows possession to be claimed in a suit for specific performance, if specifically claimed.
Answer
For full marks, cover: Sections 36 and 37(2) for the definition, Section 38 in all three sub-sections, the contrast with a temporary injunction, then every clause of Section 41, and Sections 39, 40 and 42.
Section 36 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963: "Preventive relief is granted at the discretion of the court by injunction, temporary or perpetual."
Section 37(2): "A perpetual injunction can be granted only by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit; the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, which would be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff."
So it is a final order, made after the merits have been tried on evidence, which permanently restrains the defendant.
38(1). To prevent the breach of an obligation existing in favour of the applicant, whether expressly or by implication.
38(2). Where the obligation arises from contract, the court shall be guided by the rules and provisions contained in Chapter II, that is by the law of specific performance.
38(3). Where the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff's right to, or enjoyment of, property, the court may grant a perpetual injunction where:
The Explanation deems a trespass to property occasioning or likely to occasion irreparable injury to be an invasion within clause (c).
| Basis | Temporary | Perpetual |
|---|---|---|
| Section | 37(1) | 37(2) and 38 |
| Governing law | Order XXXIX, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 | Sections 38 to 42, Specific Relief Act |
| Stage | At any stage of the suit | Only by the final decree |
| Basis | Prima facie case, balance of convenience, irreparable injury | Decided on the merits |
| Evidence | Ordinarily affidavits | Full trial evidence |
| Duration | Until a specified time, further order, or disposal | Permanent |
An injunction cannot be granted:
Section 39. Mandatory injunction, compelling acts the court can enforce, to undo a breach. Section 40. Damages in addition to or in substitution for an injunction, claimed in the plaint; and the dismissal of the suit bars a later suit for damages for the same breach. Section 42. Injunction to perform a negative agreement, notwithstanding Section 41(e): Lumley v. Wagner (1852); Niranjan Shankar Golikari (1967 SC).
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This volume prints the 2018-19 Contract I paper set by the University of Mumbai for BLS LLB 5 Years Sem 5, with a model answer to each of its 25 questions.
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10 August 2026.
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