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MHT-CET PCM practice

Mock Test 4

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Section Physics and Chemistry Marks Physics and Chemistry 1 each, Maths 2 each, no negative marking Locked
1. Physics and Chemistry 90 min 2. Mathematics 90 min

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MHT-CET PCM Mock Test 4: all 150 questions

Mock Test 4 is a full MHT-CET PCM mock written by munotes to the CET Cell's syllabus and pattern: 50 Physics and 50 Chemistry questions at 1 mark each in 90 minutes, then 50 Maths questions at 2 marks each in 90 minutes. 200 marks, no negative marking.

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Physics, questions 1 to 50

  1. Q1. A resistor of \(60\ \Omega\) and a capacitor of reactance \(80\ \Omega\) are joined in series across a \(220\ \text{V}\) (rms) AC supply. The rms current in the circuit is

    • A
      \(1.57\ \text{A}\)
    • B
      \(2.2\ \text{A}\)
    • C
      \(2.75\ \text{A}\)
    • D
      \(3.67\ \text{A}\)
  2. Q2. The temperature at which the reading on the Fahrenheit scale is twice the reading on the Celsius scale is

    • A
      \(320^\circ\text{C}\)
    • B
      \(80^\circ\text{C}\)
    • C
      \(160^\circ\text{C}\)
    • D
      \(-40^\circ\text{C}\)
  3. Q3. A mass hung from a spring oscillates with a period of \(2\ \text{s}\). A second spring, identical to the first, is joined beside it (in parallel) so that the same mass hangs from both. The new period is

    • A
      \(1\ \text{s}\)
    • B
      \(\sqrt{2}\ \text{s}\)
    • C
      \(4\ \text{s}\)
    • D
      \(2\sqrt{2}\ \text{s}\)
  4. Q4. Two cells, each of emf \(2\ \text{V}\) and internal resistance \(1\ \Omega\), are joined in parallel (positive to positive) and connected to an external resistor of \(1.5\ \Omega\). The current through the external resistor is

    • A
      \(1\ \text{A}\)
    • B
      \(0.8\ \text{A}\)
    • C
      \(1.33\ \text{A}\)
    • D
      \(1.14\ \text{A}\)
  5. Q5. A body of mass \(0.5\ \text{kg}\) performs SHM with an amplitude of \(0.1\ \text{m}\) and an angular frequency of \(10\ \text{rad s}^{-1}\). Its total energy of oscillation is

    • A
      \(0.025\ \text{J}\)
    • B
      \(0.25\ \text{J}\)
    • C
      \(2.5\ \text{J}\)
    • D
      \(0.5\ \text{J}\)
  6. Q6. Two identical small metal spheres carry charges of \(+6\ \mu\text{C}\) and \(-2\ \mu\text{C}\) and attract each other with a force \(F\). They are made to touch and are then put back at the same distance apart. The force between them now is

    • A
      \(\frac{F}{12}\), repulsive
    • B
      \(\frac{4F}{3}\), repulsive
    • C
      \(\frac{F}{3}\), repulsive
    • D
      \(\frac{F}{3}\), attractive
  7. Q7. Two resistors, \(R_1 = (100 \pm 3)\ \Omega\) and \(R_2 = (200 \pm 4)\ \Omega\), are joined in series. Their equivalent resistance is

    • A
      \((300 \pm 1)\ \Omega\)
    • B
      \((300 \pm 5)\ \Omega\)
    • C
      \((300 \pm 3.5)\ \Omega\)
    • D
      \((300 \pm 7)\ \Omega\)
  8. Q8. A very long straight wire carries a uniform charge of \(2\ \mu\text{C}\) per metre. The electric field at a distance of \(10\ \text{cm}\) from the wire is (\(\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^{9}\ \text{N m}^2\text{C}^{-2}\))

    • A
      \(3.6 \times 10^{5}\ \text{N C}^{-1}\)
    • B
      \(1.8 \times 10^{5}\ \text{N C}^{-1}\)
    • C
      \(7.2 \times 10^{5}\ \text{N C}^{-1}\)
    • D
      \(3.6 \times 10^{4}\ \text{N C}^{-1}\)
  9. Q9. A perfect black body has a surface area of \(0.5\ \text{m}^2\) and is at \(1000\ \text{K}\). The energy it radiates each second is about (\(\sigma = 5.67 \times 10^{-8}\ \text{W m}^{-2}\text{K}^{-4}\))

    • A
      \(1.4 \times 10^{4}\ \text{W}\)
    • B
      \(2.8 \times 10^{1}\ \text{W}\)
    • C
      \(5.7 \times 10^{4}\ \text{W}\)
    • D
      \(2.8 \times 10^{4}\ \text{W}\)
  10. Q10. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area \(0.02\ \text{m}^2\) with \(1\ \text{mm}\) of air between them. Its capacitance is about (\(\varepsilon_0 = 8.85 \times 10^{-12}\ \text{C}^2\text{N}^{-1}\text{m}^{-2}\))

    • A
      \(177\ \text{pF}\)
    • B
      \(17.7\ \text{pF}\)
    • C
      \(88.5\ \text{pF}\)
    • D
      \(354\ \text{pF}\)
  11. Q11. In a transistor, the emitter current is \(4\ \text{mA}\) and the collector current is \(3.8\ \text{mA}\). Its current gain \(\beta\) in the common emitter configuration is

    • A
      \(0.05\)
    • B
      \(0.95\)
    • C
      \(19\)
    • D
      \(20\)
  12. Q12. The magnetic moment of the electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen, \(\frac{eh}{4\pi m_e}\) (the Bohr magneton), is about (\(e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\ \text{C}\), \(h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34}\ \text{J s}\), \(m_e = 9.1 \times 10^{-31}\ \text{kg}\))

    • A
      \(9.3 \times 10^{-24}\ \text{A m}^2\)
    • B
      \(9.3 \times 10^{-28}\ \text{A m}^2\)
    • C
      \(4.6 \times 10^{-24}\ \text{A m}^2\)
    • D
      \(1.9 \times 10^{-23}\ \text{A m}^2\)
  13. Q13. A seconds pendulum has a period of \(2\ \text{s}\). At a place where \(g = 9.8\ \text{m s}^{-2}\), the length of a seconds pendulum is about

    • A
      \(0.993\ \text{m}\)
    • B
      \(3.97\ \text{m}\)
    • C
      \(1.99\ \text{m}\)
    • D
      \(0.248\ \text{m}\)
  14. Q14. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius \(R\) is \(B\). On the axis of the coil, at a distance \(\sqrt{3}R\) from its centre, the field is

    • A
      \(\frac{B}{4}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{B}{2}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{B}{8}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{B}{3\sqrt{3}}\)
  15. Q15. Two sources of light are coherent when they give out waves of

    • A
      the same amplitude, whatever their frequencies
    • B
      different frequencies with a constant phase difference
    • C
      the same frequency with a phase difference that changes at random
    • D
      the same frequency with a constant phase difference
  16. Q16. A wire stretched between two fixed points vibrates in \(3\) loops (segments) when it is made to vibrate at \(450\ \text{Hz}\). The fundamental frequency of the wire is

    • A
      \(225\ \text{Hz}\)
    • B
      \(450\ \text{Hz}\)
    • C
      \(1350\ \text{Hz}\)
    • D
      \(150\ \text{Hz}\)
  17. Q17. Two waves of the same frequency and the same amplitude \(a\) travel in the same direction and overlap with a phase difference of \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). The amplitude of the resultant wave is

    • A
      \(\sqrt{3}\,a\)
    • B
      \(a\)
    • C
      \(2a\)
    • D
      \(\sqrt{2}\,a\)
  18. Q18. In an AC circuit, the voltage is \(V = 200\sin\omega t\) volt and the current is \(I = 5\sin\left(\omega t - \frac{\pi}{3}\right)\) ampere. The average power used in the circuit is

    • A
      \(433\ \text{W}\)
    • B
      \(500\ \text{W}\)
    • C
      \(1000\ \text{W}\)
    • D
      \(250\ \text{W}\)
  19. Q19. In a Wheatstone bridge, \(P = 10\ \Omega\), \(Q = 15\ \Omega\) and \(R = 8\ \Omega\). The bridge is balanced when a \(36\ \Omega\) resistor is joined in parallel with the fourth arm \(S\). The resistance \(S\) is

    • A
      \(9\ \Omega\)
    • B
      \(24\ \Omega\)
    • C
      \(12\ \Omega\)
    • D
      \(18\ \Omega\)
  20. Q20. The area enclosed by the hysteresis loop (\(B\) against \(H\)) of a ferromagnetic material gives

    • A
      the magnetic susceptibility of the material
    • B
      the retentivity of the material
    • C
      the coercivity of the material
    • D
      the energy lost as heat per unit volume in each cycle of magnetisation
  21. Q21. A ball of mass \(0.1\ \text{kg}\) moves at \(10\ \text{m s}^{-1}\). Its de Broglie wavelength is (\(h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34}\ \text{J s}\))

    • A
      \(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\ \text{m}\)
    • B
      \(6.63 \times 10^{-32}\ \text{m}\)
    • C
      \(6.63 \times 10^{-33}\ \text{m}\)
    • D
      \(6.63 \times 10^{-35}\ \text{m}\)
  22. Q22. A radioactive substance has a half-life of \(693\ \text{s}\). Its mean life is about

    • A
      \(1386\ \text{s}\)
    • B
      \(693\ \text{s}\)
    • C
      \(1000\ \text{s}\)
    • D
      \(480\ \text{s}\)
  23. Q23. A stone is thrown with a speed of \(20\ \text{m s}^{-1}\) at an angle of \(30^\circ\) above the horizontal. With \(g = 10\ \text{m s}^{-2}\), its horizontal range on level ground is

    • A
      \(20\sqrt{3}\ \text{m}\)
    • B
      \(40\ \text{m}\)
    • C
      \(10\sqrt{3}\ \text{m}\)
    • D
      \(20\ \text{m}\)
  24. Q24. The driving cell of a potentiometer is kept the same. The sensitivity of the potentiometer can be increased by

    • A
      using a shorter potentiometer wire
    • B
      using a longer potentiometer wire
    • C
      increasing the current through the potentiometer wire
    • D
      using a driving cell of larger emf
  25. Q25. A ball of mass \(2\ \text{kg}\) moving at \(3\ \text{m s}^{-1}\) hits a ball of mass \(1\ \text{kg}\) at rest, and the two stick together. The kinetic energy lost in the collision is

    • A
      \(9\ \text{J}\)
    • B
      \(3\ \text{J}\)
    • C
      \(6\ \text{J}\)
    • D
      \(4.5\ \text{J}\)
  26. Q26. Charges of \(+2\ \mu\text{C}\), \(-1\ \mu\text{C}\), \(+3\ \mu\text{C}\) and \(-2\ \mu\text{C}\) sit at the four corners of a square whose diagonals are \(20\ \text{cm}\) long. The electric potential at the centre of the square is (\(\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^{9}\ \text{N m}^2\text{C}^{-2}\))

    • A
      \(3.6 \times 10^{5}\ \text{V}\)
    • B
      \(7.2 \times 10^{5}\ \text{V}\)
    • C
      zero
    • D
      \(1.8 \times 10^{5}\ \text{V}\)
  27. Q27. In a photoelectric experiment, the stopping potential \(V_0\) is plotted against the frequency \(\nu\) of the light used. The graph is a straight line whose slope is (\(h\) = Planck's constant, \(e\) = electronic charge, \(\phi_0\) = work function)

    • A
      \(h\)
    • B
      \(\frac{\phi_0}{e}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{h}{e}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{e}{h}\)
  28. Q28. The energy of the hydrogen atom in its ground state is \(-13.6\ \text{eV}\). The energy needed to remove the electron from a hydrogen atom that is in its first excited state is

    • A
      \(1.51\ \text{eV}\)
    • B
      \(13.6\ \text{eV}\)
    • C
      \(3.4\ \text{eV}\)
    • D
      \(10.2\ \text{eV}\)
  29. Q29. One mole of an ideal gas at \(300\ \text{K}\) expands isothermally until its volume is doubled. The work done by the gas is about (\(R = 8.31\ \text{J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\), \(\ln 2 = 0.693\))

    • A
      \(3456\ \text{J}\)
    • B
      \(1728\ \text{J}\)
    • C
      \(864\ \text{J}\)
    • D
      \(2493\ \text{J}\)
  30. Q30. A flywheel with a moment of inertia of \(2\ \text{kg m}^2\) turns at \(300\) revolutions per minute. Its rotational kinetic energy is about

    • A
      \(493\ \text{J}\)
    • B
      \(987\ \text{J}\)
    • C
      \(1974\ \text{J}\)
    • D
      \(9.0 \times 10^{4}\ \text{J}\)
  31. Q31. The radius of the Earth is \(6400\ \text{km}\). The height above the Earth's surface at which the acceleration due to gravity falls to one fourth of its value at the surface is

    • A
      \(6400\ \text{km}\)
    • B
      \(1600\ \text{km}\)
    • C
      \(12800\ \text{km}\)
    • D
      \(3200\ \text{km}\)
  32. Q32. A prism of refracting angle \(60^\circ\) gives an angle of minimum deviation of \(30^\circ\). The refractive index of its material is

    • A
      \(\sqrt{2}\)
    • B
      \(\sqrt{3}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
    • D
      \(1.5\)
  33. Q33. A listener moves at \(33\ \text{m s}^{-1}\) straight towards a stationary source of sound of frequency \(500\ \text{Hz}\). If the speed of sound is \(330\ \text{m s}^{-1}\), the frequency the listener hears is

    • A
      \(555.6\ \text{Hz}\)
    • B
      \(450\ \text{Hz}\)
    • C
      \(550\ \text{Hz}\)
    • D
      \(500\ \text{Hz}\)
  34. Q34. A soap bubble has a radius of \(1\ \text{cm}\). The surface tension of the soap solution is \(0.04\ \text{N m}^{-1}\). The excess pressure inside the bubble is

    • A
      \(32\ \text{Pa}\)
    • B
      \(16\ \text{Pa}\)
    • C
      \(8\ \text{Pa}\)
    • D
      \(4\ \text{Pa}\)
  35. Q35. When a p-n junction diode is forward biased,

    • A
      its depletion region becomes wider and the potential barrier is raised
    • B
      its depletion region becomes narrower and the potential barrier is lowered
    • C
      its depletion region and the potential barrier do not change
    • D
      its depletion region becomes narrower but the potential barrier is raised
  36. Q36. Two moles of an ideal diatomic gas are heated at constant volume, and the temperature rises by \(10\ \text{K}\). The heat supplied is about (\(R = 8.31\ \text{J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\))

    • A
      \(166.2\ \text{J}\)
    • B
      \(249.3\ \text{J}\)
    • C
      \(581.7\ \text{J}\)
    • D
      \(415.5\ \text{J}\)
  37. Q37. An ideal gas is taken round a cycle that is a rectangle on a \(P\)-\(V\) diagram: the pressure changes between \(1 \times 10^{5}\ \text{Pa}\) and \(3 \times 10^{5}\ \text{Pa}\), and the volume between \(1\ \text{L}\) and \(4\ \text{L}\). The net work done in one cycle is

    • A
      \(1200\ \text{J}\)
    • B
      \(600\ \text{J}\)
    • C
      \(900\ \text{J}\)
    • D
      \(300\ \text{J}\)
  38. Q38. A strong bar magnet is dropped down a long vertical copper pipe. Inside the pipe, the magnet

    • A
      falls with an acceleration greater than \(g\)
    • B
      falls freely with acceleration \(g\), since copper is not magnetic
    • C
      falls with an acceleration less than \(g\)
    • D
      stops and stays at rest inside the pipe
  39. Q39. A straight wire \(0.5\ \text{m}\) long carries a current of \(4\ \text{A}\) in a uniform magnetic field of \(0.2\ \text{T}\). The wire makes an angle of \(30^\circ\) with the field. The force on the wire is

    • A
      \(0.4\ \text{N}\)
    • B
      \(0.2\ \text{N}\)
    • C
      \(0.1\ \text{N}\)
    • D
      \(0.35\ \text{N}\)
  40. Q40. In Young's double slit experiment, the intensities of the light from the two slits are in the ratio \(9 : 1\). The ratio of the maximum to the minimum intensity in the fringe pattern is

    • A
      \(81 : 1\)
    • B
      \(9 : 1\)
    • C
      \(4 : 1\)
    • D
      \(3 : 1\)
  41. Q41. In a hydraulic lift, the small piston has an area of \(5\ \text{cm}^2\) and the large piston an area of \(250\ \text{cm}^2\). With \(g = 10\ \text{m s}^{-2}\), the force on the small piston needed to hold up a car of mass \(1000\ \text{kg}\) on the large piston is

    • A
      \(2000\ \text{N}\)
    • B
      \(500\ \text{N}\)
    • C
      \(50\ \text{N}\)
    • D
      \(200\ \text{N}\)
  42. Q42. The ratio of the radius of the nucleus \({}^{27}_{13}\text{Al}\) to the radius of the nucleus \({}^{125}_{52}\text{Te}\) is

    • A
      \(3 : 5\)
    • B
      \(9 : 25\)
    • C
      \(27 : 125\)
    • D
      \(5 : 3\)
  43. Q43. A stone of mass \(0.2\ \text{kg}\) tied to a string is whirled in a vertical circle. With \(g = 10\ \text{m s}^{-2}\), the tension in the string at the lowest point is greater than the tension at the highest point by

    • A
      \(4\ \text{N}\)
    • B
      \(6\ \text{N}\)
    • C
      \(2\ \text{N}\)
    • D
      \(12\ \text{N}\)
  44. Q44. A toroid of mean radius \(10\ \text{cm}\) has \(500\) turns and carries a current of \(0.5\ \text{A}\). The magnetic field inside its core is (\(\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7}\ \text{T m A}^{-1}\))

    • A
      \(1 \times 10^{-3}\ \text{T}\)
    • B
      \(2.5 \times 10^{-4}\ \text{T}\)
    • C
      \(5 \times 10^{-4}\ \text{T}\)
    • D
      \(3.14 \times 10^{-3}\ \text{T}\)
  45. Q45. For two non-zero vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\), the magnitude of their vector product equals their scalar product: \(|\vec{A} \times \vec{B}| = \vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}\). The angle between the vectors is

    • A
      \(0^\circ\)
    • B
      \(45^\circ\)
    • C
      \(60^\circ\)
    • D
      \(90^\circ\)
  46. Q46. A long solenoid of length \(50\ \text{cm}\) and cross-sectional area \(10\ \text{cm}^2\) has \(500\) turns. Its self-inductance is about (\(\mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7}\ \text{T m A}^{-1}\))

    • A
      \(1.26\ \text{mH}\)
    • B
      \(6.28\ \text{mH}\)
    • C
      \(0.628\ \text{mH}\)
    • D
      \(0.314\ \text{mH}\)
  47. Q47. The internal energy of \(2\) moles of an ideal monatomic gas at \(300\ \text{K}\) is about (\(R = 8.31\ \text{J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\))

    • A
      \(7.48\ \text{kJ}\)
    • B
      \(4.99\ \text{kJ}\)
    • C
      \(12.5\ \text{kJ}\)
    • D
      \(3.74\ \text{kJ}\)
  48. Q48. A uniform disc has a mass of \(2\ \text{kg}\) and a radius of \(10\ \text{cm}\). Its moment of inertia about an axis through a point on its rim, perpendicular to its plane, is

    • A
      \(0.01\ \text{kg m}^2\)
    • B
      \(0.025\ \text{kg m}^2\)
    • C
      \(0.02\ \text{kg m}^2\)
    • D
      \(0.03\ \text{kg m}^2\)
  49. Q49. A series LCR circuit is at resonance. Its capacitance is now made four times as large. To keep the same resonant frequency, its inductance must be made

    • A
      half its value
    • B
      one fourth of its value
    • C
      twice its value
    • D
      four times its value
  50. Q50. Each of the two inputs of an OR gate is first passed through a NOT gate. The combination works as

    • A
      a NAND gate
    • B
      a NOR gate
    • C
      an AND gate
    • D
      an OR gate

Chemistry, questions 51 to 100

  1. Q51. A reaction has \(\Delta H > 0\) and \(\Delta S > 0\). The reaction is spontaneous

    • A
      at all temperatures
    • B
      at no temperature
    • C
      only at low temperatures
    • D
      only at high temperatures
  2. Q52. Chloroform is kept in dark coloured bottles filled to the top because

    • A
      it explodes when it is exposed to light
    • B
      in light, air slowly oxidises it to the poisonous gas phosgene
    • C
      in light it slowly changes into methane
    • D
      it absorbs moisture from the air and turns acidic at once
  3. Q53. A \(5\%\) (mass by volume) solution of cane sugar (molar mass \(342\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)) is isotonic with a solution of urea (molar mass \(60\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)) of strength about

    • A
      \(0.877\%\)
    • B
      \(28.5\%\)
    • C
      \(1.75\%\)
    • D
      \(5\%\)
  4. Q54. A concentrated aqueous solution of sodium propanoate, \(\ce{CH3CH2COONa}\), is electrolysed (Kolbe's method). The alkane formed at the anode is

    • A
      propane
    • B
      butane
    • C
      hexane
    • D
      ethane
  5. Q55. Which substance is used as the catalyst in the contact process for making sulphuric acid?

    • A
      \(\ce{V2O5}\)
    • B
      finely divided iron
    • C
      \(\ce{TiCl4}\) with \(\ce{Al(C2H5)3}\)
    • D
      nickel
  6. Q56. Which halogen has the most negative electron gain enthalpy?

    • A
      iodine
    • B
      bromine
    • C
      chlorine
    • D
      fluorine
  7. Q57. The \(\alpha\)-helix, a secondary structure of proteins, is held in shape mainly by

    • A
      disulphide bonds between cysteine units
    • B
      peptide bonds between the side chains
    • C
      ionic bonds between the end groups of the chain
    • D
      hydrogen bonds between the C=O and N-H groups of the peptide chain
  8. Q58. Phenol is treated with concentrated nitric acid in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid. The main product is

    • A
      1,3,5-trinitrobenzene
    • B
      a mixture of 2-nitrophenol and 4-nitrophenol
    • C
      2,4,6-trinitrophenol (picric acid)
    • D
      3-nitrophenol
  9. Q59. A gas has a density of \(1.25\ \text{g L}^{-1}\) at STP. Its molar mass is about (molar volume at STP: \(22.4\ \text{L mol}^{-1}\))

    • A
      \(32\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
    • B
      \(17.9\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
    • C
      \(14\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
    • D
      \(28\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  10. Q60. The solubility product of \(\ce{BaSO4}\) is \(1.1 \times 10^{-10}\). Equal volumes of \(2 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{M}\ \ce{BaCl2}\) and \(2 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{M}\ \ce{Na2SO4}\) are mixed. Then

    • A
      a precipitate forms, because the ionic product, \(4.0 \times 10^{-10}\), is more than \(K_{sp}\)
    • B
      no precipitate forms, because the ionic product, \(1.0 \times 10^{-10}\), is less than \(K_{sp}\)
    • C
      no precipitate forms, because barium sulphate is freely soluble in water
    • D
      a precipitate forms, because barium sulphate is insoluble in any amount
  11. Q61. In a cubic crystal, atoms of A sit at the corners of the cube and atoms of B at the centres of the faces. The formula of the compound is

    • A
      \(\ce{A3B}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{AB2}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{AB3}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{A8B6}\)
  12. Q62. Following green chemistry, which of these is a safer solvent that can replace harmful organic solvents in many processes?

    • A
      supercritical carbon dioxide
    • B
      carbon tetrachloride
    • C
      benzene
    • D
      chloroform
  13. Q63. Which order of thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 is correct?

    • A
      \(\ce{H2S} > \ce{H2O} > \ce{H2Se} > \ce{H2Te}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{H2Te} > \ce{H2Se} > \ce{H2S} > \ce{H2O}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{H2Te} > \ce{H2O} > \ce{H2S} > \ce{H2Se}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{H2O} > \ce{H2S} > \ce{H2Se} > \ce{H2Te}\)
  14. Q64. Benzoic acid is treated with bromine in the presence of iron(III) bromide. The main product is

    • A
      4-bromobenzoic acid
    • B
      2-bromobenzoic acid
    • C
      3-bromobenzoic acid
    • D
      bromobenzene
  15. Q65. Phenol is heated with zinc dust. The organic product is

    • A
      benzene
    • B
      benzoic acid
    • C
      cyclohexanol
    • D
      toluene
  16. Q66. The most common oxidation state shown by the lanthanoids is

    • A
      \(+3\)
    • B
      \(+6\)
    • C
      \(+4\)
    • D
      \(+2\)
  17. Q67. Dilute acid is added to a yellow solution of potassium chromate. The colour of the solution changes to

    • A
      violet, because permanganate ions form
    • B
      orange, because dichromate ions form
    • C
      colourless
    • D
      green, because \(\ce{Cr^3+}\) ions form
  18. Q68. Which statement about the molecularity of an elementary reaction is correct?

    • A
      It can be a fraction
    • B
      It can be found only by experiment, from the rate law
    • C
      It can be zero
    • D
      It is always a whole number and is never zero
  19. Q69. To make 4-bromoaniline from aniline in good yield, aniline is first

    • A
      converted to nitrobenzene, then brominated
    • B
      acetylated to acetanilide, then brominated, then hydrolysed
    • C
      treated directly with excess bromine water
    • D
      diazotised, then treated with bromine
  20. Q70. An aqueous solution of which salt is acidic?

    • A
      \(\ce{NaCl}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{Na2CO3}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{NH4Cl}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{CH3COONa}\)
  21. Q71. Which ionic solid mainly shows the Frenkel defect?

    • A
      \(\ce{CsCl}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{NaCl}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{ZnS}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{KCl}\)
  22. Q72. \(4\ \text{g}\) of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in water and the solution is made up to \(250\ \text{mL}\). The molarity of the solution is (Na = \(23\), O = \(16\), H = \(1\))

    • A
      \(1.6\ \text{M}\)
    • B
      \(0.4\ \text{M}\)
    • C
      \(0.1\ \text{M}\)
    • D
      \(0.04\ \text{M}\)
  23. Q73. The enthalpy of neutralisation of a strong acid by a strong base is \(-57.1\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\). The heat given out when \(200\ \text{mL}\) of \(0.5\ \text{M}\) HCl is mixed with \(200\ \text{mL}\) of \(0.5\ \text{M}\) NaOH is

    • A
      \(57.1\ \text{kJ}\)
    • B
      \(5.71\ \text{kJ}\)
    • C
      \(11.42\ \text{kJ}\)
    • D
      \(2.86\ \text{kJ}\)
  24. Q74. For the reaction \(\ce{2N2O5 -> 4NO2 + O2}\), oxygen is formed at \(0.02\ \text{mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}\). The rate of formation of \(\ce{NO2}\) is

    • A
      \(0.02\ \text{mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}\)
    • B
      \(0.005\ \text{mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}\)
    • C
      \(0.08\ \text{mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}\)
    • D
      \(0.04\ \text{mol L}^{-1}\text{s}^{-1}\)
  25. Q75. For a reaction at \(300\ \text{K}\), \(\Delta H = -10\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\) and \(\Delta S = -20\ \text{J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\). Its \(\Delta G\) is

    • A
      \(+5990\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • B
      \(-16\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • C
      \(+4\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • D
      \(-4\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  26. Q76. Benzoyl chloride is reduced with hydrogen over palladium on barium sulphate (Rosenmund reduction). The product is

    • A
      benzaldehyde
    • B
      toluene
    • C
      benzoic acid
    • D
      benzyl alcohol
  27. Q77. Which of these is an electrophile?

    • A
      \(\ce{NH3}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{NO2+}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{CN-}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{H2O}\)
  28. Q78. Which mixture shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law?

    • A
      benzene and toluene
    • B
      chloroform and acetone
    • C
      acetone and carbon disulphide
    • D
      ethanol and water
  29. Q79. Glucose is oxidised by bromine water. The product is

    • A
      glucose pentaacetate
    • B
      n-hexane
    • C
      saccharic acid
    • D
      gluconic acid
  30. Q80. Which ligand causes the largest crystal field splitting in an octahedral complex of a given metal ion?

    • A
      \(\ce{CN-}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{F-}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{H2O}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{Cl-}\)
  31. Q81. \(1\ \text{g}\) of a non-volatile non-electrolyte dissolved in \(50\ \text{g}\) of benzene lowers its freezing point by \(0.40\ \text{K}\). If \(K_f\) of benzene is \(5.12\ \text{K kg mol}^{-1}\), the molar mass of the solute is

    • A
      \(256\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
    • B
      \(128\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
    • C
      \(512\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
    • D
      \(25.6\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  32. Q82. The activation energy of a reaction is \(80\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\) and its enthalpy change is \(\Delta H = -20\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\). The activation energy of the reverse reaction is

    • A
      \(20\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • B
      \(80\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • C
      \(60\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • D
      \(100\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  33. Q83. Which set of quantum numbers is NOT possible for an electron?

    • A
      \(n = 3,\ l = 2,\ m_l = -2,\ m_s = -\frac{1}{2}\)
    • B
      \(n = 2,\ l = 1,\ m_l = -1,\ m_s = +\frac{1}{2}\)
    • C
      \(n = 4,\ l = 0,\ m_l = 0,\ m_s = -\frac{1}{2}\)
    • D
      \(n = 2,\ l = 2,\ m_l = 0,\ m_s = +\frac{1}{2}\)
  34. Q84. Which compound is used as an antiseptic in a dilute solution (about \(0.2\%\)) and as a disinfectant in a stronger one (about \(1\%\))?

    • A
      saccharin
    • B
      phenol
    • C
      paracetamol
    • D
      aspirin
  35. Q85. In allene, \(\ce{CH2=C=CH2}\), the hybridisation of the three carbon atoms, taken from left to right, is

    • A
      \(sp^3\), \(sp\), \(sp^3\)
    • B
      \(sp\), \(sp^2\), \(sp\)
    • C
      \(sp^2\), \(sp\), \(sp^2\)
    • D
      \(sp^2\), \(sp^2\), \(sp^2\)
  36. Q86. Bulk gold is yellow. A solution containing gold nanoparticles of about \(10\ \text{nm}\) usually looks

    • A
      red to purple
    • B
      colourless
    • C
      golden yellow, like bulk gold
    • D
      green
  37. Q87. According to the Freundlich adsorption isotherm, \(\frac{x}{m} = kP^{1/n}\). A graph of \(\log\frac{x}{m}\) against \(\log P\) is a straight line whose slope is

    • A
      \(k\)
    • B
      \(\frac{1}{n}\)
    • C
      \(n\)
    • D
      \(\log k\)
  38. Q88. The degree of dissociation of a \(0.01\ \text{M}\) solution of ammonium hydroxide (\(K_b = 1.8 \times 10^{-5}\)) is about

    • A
      \(4.24\%\)
    • B
      \(0.18\%\)
    • C
      \(1.8\%\)
    • D
      \(0.42\%\)
  39. Q89. Which order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition is correct?

    • A
      \(\ce{CH3COCH3} > \ce{CH3CHO} > \ce{HCHO}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{CH3COCH3} > \ce{HCHO} > \ce{CH3CHO}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{CH3CHO} > \ce{HCHO} > \ce{CH3COCH3}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{HCHO} > \ce{CH3CHO} > \ce{CH3COCH3}\)
  40. Q90. The standard emf of a Daniell cell, in which \(2\) electrons are transferred, is \(1.10\ \text{V}\). Its standard Gibbs energy change is about (\(F = 96500\ \text{C mol}^{-1}\))

    • A
      \(+212.3\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • B
      \(-212.3\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • C
      \(-106.2\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
    • D
      \(-21.2\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  41. Q91. Ethanamine, \(\ce{C2H5NH2}\), is treated with nitrous acid (sodium nitrite and dilute HCl) in the cold. The organic product and the gas given off are

    • A
      ethanenitrile and hydrogen
    • B
      a stable ethanediazonium chloride, and no gas
    • C
      ethanol and nitrogen dioxide
    • D
      ethanol and nitrogen
  42. Q92. Which of these is a disproportionation reaction?

    • A
      \(\ce{CaCO3 -> CaO + CO2}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{2H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{2KClO3 -> 2KCl + 3O2}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{Zn + CuSO4 -> ZnSO4 + Cu}\)
  43. Q93. The effective atomic number (EAN) of iron in \(\ce{K4[Fe(CN)6]}\) is (atomic number of Fe = \(26\))

    • A
      \(36\)
    • B
      \(30\)
    • C
      \(24\)
    • D
      \(38\)
  44. Q94. Chlorobenzene is much less reactive than chloroethane towards nucleophilic substitution, because in chlorobenzene

    • A
      the C-Cl bond has partial double bond character due to resonance
    • B
      the C-Cl bond is purely ionic
    • C
      the C-Cl bond is longer and weaker
    • D
      chlorine is attached to an \(sp^3\) carbon atom
  45. Q95. The number of geometrical isomers of the square planar complex \(\ce{[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]}\) is

    • A
      \(2\)
    • B
      \(3\)
    • C
      \(4\)
    • D
      none
  46. Q96. When a lead storage battery gives out current (discharges), the substance formed at both electrodes is

    • A
      \(\ce{PbO2}\)
    • B
      \(\ce{PbO}\)
    • C
      \(\ce{PbSO4}\)
    • D
      \(\ce{Pb}\)
  47. Q97. A concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride (brine) is electrolysed with inert electrodes. The products are

    • A
      chlorine at the cathode and hydrogen at the anode
    • B
      sodium at the cathode and chlorine at the anode
    • C
      hydrogen at the cathode and chlorine at the anode
    • D
      hydrogen at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
  48. Q98. The vapour of an alcohol is passed over heated copper at \(573\ \text{K}\), and an alkene is formed. The alcohol is

    • A
      ethanol
    • B
      butan-1-ol
    • C
      2-methylpropan-2-ol
    • D
      propan-2-ol
  49. Q99. Buna-S rubber is a copolymer of

    • A
      isoprene only
    • B
      chloroprene only
    • C
      buta-1,3-diene and acrylonitrile
    • D
      buta-1,3-diene and styrene
  50. Q100. Which alkali metal combines directly with nitrogen to form a nitride?

    • A
      caesium
    • B
      sodium
    • C
      lithium
    • D
      potassium

That is Physics and Chemistry. How many of these 100 would you get right in 90 minutes? The pass marks the whole mock for you and shows a worked solution for every question.

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Mathematics, questions 101 to 150

  1. Q101. The modulus of \(z = \frac{(3 + 4i)(1 - i)}{1 + 2i}\) is

    • A
      \(10\)
    • B
      \(\sqrt{2}\)
    • C
      \(5\)
    • D
      \(\sqrt{10}\)
  2. Q102. \(\displaystyle\int \frac{\cos 2x}{(\sin x + \cos x)^2}\,dx\) is

    • A
      \(\log|\cos x - \sin x| + c\)
    • B
      \(\log|\sin x + \cos x| + c\)
    • C
      \(\frac{1}{\sin x + \cos x} + c\)
    • D
      \(\log|\cos 2x| + c\)
  3. Q103. The volume of the tetrahedron with vertices \(O(0, 0, 0)\), \(A(1, 2, 1)\), \(B(2, 1, 3)\) and \(C(-1, 1, 2)\) is

    • A
      \(4\) cubic units
    • B
      \(12\) cubic units
    • C
      \(6\) cubic units
    • D
      \(2\) cubic units
  4. Q104. A family has two children. Given that at least one of them is a boy, the probability that both are boys is (boys and girls equally likely)

    • A
      \(\frac{1}{3}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{1}{4}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{1}{2}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  5. Q105. Two switches \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) are joined in parallel, and this pair is joined in series with a third switch \(S_3\). If \(p\), \(q\) and \(r\) stand for '\(S_1\), \(S_2\), \(S_3\) is closed', the circuit is represented by

    • A
      \((p \vee q) \wedge r\)
    • B
      \((p \wedge q) \wedge r\)
    • C
      \((p \wedge q) \vee r\)
    • D
      \(p \vee (q \wedge r)\)
  6. Q106. The points with position vectors \(60\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}\), \(40\hat{i} - 8\hat{j}\) and \(a\hat{i} - 52\hat{j}\) are collinear. Then \(a\) is

    • A
      \(-20\)
    • B
      \(40\)
    • C
      \(20\)
    • D
      \(-40\)
  7. Q107. A particle moves along a line so that its distance from a fixed point after \(t\) seconds is \(s = t^3 - 6t^2 + 9t\) metres. Its acceleration at the second moment when its velocity is zero is

    • A
      \(12\ \text{m s}^{-2}\)
    • B
      \(6\ \text{m s}^{-2}\)
    • C
      \(0\ \text{m s}^{-2}\)
    • D
      \(-6\ \text{m s}^{-2}\)
  8. Q108. If \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 3 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\) and \(B = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ -1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\), then \(AB - BA\) is

    • A
      \(\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 2 \\ -1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\)
    • B
      \(\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\)
    • C
      \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & -2 \\ 1 & -2 \end{bmatrix}\)
    • D
      \(\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 2 \\ 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\)
  9. Q109. If \(x^y = e^{x - y}\) (\(x > 0\)), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{x}{(1 + \log x)^2}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{1}{(1 + \log x)^2}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{\log x}{1 + \log x}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{\log x}{(1 + \log x)^2}\)
  10. Q110. The general solution of \(\sqrt{3}\cos\theta + \sin\theta = \sqrt{2}\) is (\(n \in \mathbb{Z}\))

    • A
      \(\theta = n\pi + (-1)^n\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\pi}{6}\)
    • B
      \(\theta = 2n\pi \pm \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\pi}{6}\)
    • C
      \(\theta = 2n\pi \pm \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{\pi}{6}\)
    • D
      \(\theta = n\pi \pm \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\pi}{6}\)
  11. Q111. The problem: maximise \(z = x + y\) subject to \(x + y \ge 4\), \(x + y \le 2\), \(x \ge 0\), \(y \ge 0\)

    • A
      has the maximum value \(4\)
    • B
      has the maximum value \(2\)
    • C
      has no feasible solution
    • D
      has an unbounded solution
  12. Q112. A random variable \(X\) has \(P(X = x) = k(x + 1)\) for \(x = 0, 1, 2, 3\). Then \(P(X \ge 2)\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{3}{10}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{7}{10}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{2}{5}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  13. Q113. \(\displaystyle\int_0^{2} \sqrt{4 - x^2}\,dx\) is

    • A
      \(2\pi\)
    • B
      \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
    • C
      \(4\pi\)
    • D
      \(\pi\)
  14. Q114. The equation \(x^2 + 4xy + ky^2 = 0\) represents two real and distinct lines through the origin when

    • A
      \(k > -4\)
    • B
      \(k > 4\)
    • C
      \(k < 4\)
    • D
      \(k = 4\)
  15. Q115. For \(f(x) = \frac{2x - 3}{5}\), \(x \in \mathbb{R}\), the inverse function \(f^{-1}(x)\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{2x + 3}{5}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{5x - 3}{2}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{5}{2x - 3}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{5x + 3}{2}\)
  16. Q116. The area of the triangle formed by the lines \(x^2 - y^2 = 0\) and the line \(x = 4\) is

    • A
      \(8\) square units
    • B
      \(16\) square units
    • C
      \(4\) square units
    • D
      \(32\) square units
  17. Q117. The equation of the plane that cuts off intercepts \(2\), \(3\) and \(4\) on the \(x\), \(y\) and \(z\) axes is

    • A
      \(4x + 6y + 3z = 12\)
    • B
      \(6x + 4y + 3z = 24\)
    • C
      \(6x + 4y + 3z = 12\)
    • D
      \(2x + 3y + 4z = 12\)
  18. Q118. If \(y = \sin(m\sin^{-1}x)\), then \((1 - x^2)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - x\frac{dy}{dx}\) equals

    • A
      \(-my\)
    • B
      \(m^2 y\)
    • C
      \(-m^2 y\)
    • D
      \(0\)
  19. Q119. The acute angle between the lines \(2x - y + 3 = 0\) and \(3x + y - 1 = 0\) is

    • A
      \(90^\circ\)
    • B
      \(60^\circ\)
    • C
      \(45^\circ\)
    • D
      \(30^\circ\)
  20. Q120. The direction ratios of the line of intersection of the planes \(x + y + z = 1\) and \(x - y + 2z = 3\) are

    • A
      \(3, 1, -2\)
    • B
      \(2, 1, 3\)
    • C
      \(3, -1, -2\)
    • D
      \(1, -1, 2\)
  21. Q121. The diagonals of a parallelogram are \(3\hat{i} + \hat{j} - 2\hat{k}\) and \(\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}\). The area of the parallelogram is

    • A
      \(10\sqrt{3}\) square units
    • B
      \(5\) square units
    • C
      \(15\) square units
    • D
      \(5\sqrt{3}\) square units
  22. Q122. If \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\), then for every natural number \(n\), \(A^n\) is

    • A
      \(2^{n - 1}A\)
    • B
      \(2^n A\)
    • C
      \(nA\)
    • D
      \(2^{n + 1}A\)
  23. Q123. A continuous random variable \(X\) has the probability density function \(f(x) = 2x\) for \(0 \le x \le 1\) (and \(0\) elsewhere). Its expected value \(E(X)\) is

    • A
      \(1\)
    • B
      \(\frac{1}{2}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{2}{3}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  24. Q124. The equation of the normal to the curve \(y = x^2\) at the point \((1, 1)\) is

    • A
      \(x + 2y = 3\)
    • B
      \(x + 2y = 1\)
    • C
      \(x - 2y + 1 = 0\)
    • D
      \(2x - y = 1\)
  25. Q125. In \(\triangle ABC\), \(a = 4\), \(b = 6\) and \(C = 60^\circ\). The area of the triangle is

    • A
      \(12\)
    • B
      \(6\sqrt{3}\)
    • C
      \(6\)
    • D
      \(12\sqrt{3}\)
  26. Q126. \(\displaystyle\int_0^{1} \frac{x}{x^2 + 1}\,dx\) is

    • A
      \(\log 2\)
    • B
      \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{1}{2}\log 2\)
    • D
      \(2\log 2\)
  27. Q127. The statement \(p \leftrightarrow q\) is logically equivalent to

    • A
      \(\sim p \leftrightarrow q\)
    • B
      \((p \rightarrow q) \wedge (q \rightarrow p)\)
    • C
      \((p \rightarrow q) \vee (q \rightarrow p)\)
    • D
      \((p \wedge q) \vee (\sim p \wedge q)\)
  28. Q128. The equation of the circle with the points \((1, 2)\) and \((5, 6)\) as the ends of a diameter is

    • A
      \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 8y + 25 = 0\)
    • B
      \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 8y + 17 = 0\)
    • C
      \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 8y - 17 = 0\)
    • D
      \(x^2 + y^2 + 6x + 8y + 17 = 0\)
  29. Q129. The number of different arrangements of the letters of the word BANANA is

    • A
      \(360\)
    • B
      \(120\)
    • C
      \(60\)
    • D
      \(720\)
  30. Q130. The slope of one of the lines represented by \(x^2 + kxy + 2y^2 = 0\) is twice the slope of the other. Then \(k\) is

    • A
      \(\pm 3\)
    • B
      \(\pm 2\sqrt{2}\)
    • C
      \(\pm 2\)
    • D
      \(\pm 6\)
  31. Q131. The general solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{x + y}{x}\) (\(x > 0\)) is

    • A
      \(y = x\log x + c\)
    • B
      \(y = x^2\log x + cx\)
    • C
      \(y = x\log x + cx\)
    • D
      \(y = \log x + cx\)
  32. Q132. The area of the region enclosed by the parabolas \(y = x^2\) and \(y^2 = x\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{1}{3}\) square units
    • B
      \(\frac{2}{3}\) square units
    • C
      \(1\) square unit
    • D
      \(\frac{1}{6}\) square units
  33. Q133. The eccentricity of the hyperbola \(\frac{x^2}{16} - \frac{y^2}{9} = 1\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{5}{3}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{5}{4}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{4}{5}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  34. Q134. The converse of the statement 'If a number is divisible by \(6\), then it is divisible by \(3\)' is

    • A
      'If a number is divisible by \(3\), then it is divisible by \(6\)'
    • B
      'A number is divisible by \(6\) and it is not divisible by \(3\)'
    • C
      'If a number is not divisible by \(3\), then it is not divisible by \(6\)'
    • D
      'If a number is not divisible by \(6\), then it is not divisible by \(3\)'
  35. Q135. \(A\) is a square matrix of order \(3\) with \(|A| = 5\). Then \(|2A|\) is

    • A
      \(30\)
    • B
      \(10\)
    • C
      \(40\)
    • D
      \(80\)
  36. Q136. The function \(f(x) = \frac{e^{3x} - 1}{\sin x}\) for \(x \neq 0\), with \(f(0) = k\), is continuous at \(x = 0\) when \(k\) is

    • A
      \(0\)
    • B
      \(\frac{1}{3}\)
    • C
      \(3\)
    • D
      \(1\)
  37. Q137. \(\displaystyle\int \frac{dx}{\sqrt{x^2 + 6x + 13}}\) is

    • A
      \(\log\left|x + 3 + \sqrt{x^2 + 6x + 13}\right| + c\)
    • B
      \(\frac{1}{2}\tan^{-1}\frac{x + 3}{2} + c\)
    • C
      \(\sin^{-1}\frac{x + 3}{2} + c\)
    • D
      \(\log\left|x + 3 - \sqrt{x^2 + 6x + 13}\right| + c\)
  38. Q138. The least value of \(f(x) = x^2 + \frac{16}{x}\) for \(x > 0\) is

    • A
      \(12\)
    • B
      \(16\)
    • C
      \(20\)
    • D
      \(8\)
  39. Q139. The lines \(\frac{x - 1}{2} = \frac{y - 2}{3} = \frac{z - 3}{4}\) and \(\frac{x - 2}{3} = \frac{y - 3}{4} = \frac{z - 4}{5}\)

    • A
      intersect at the point \((-1, -1, -1)\)
    • B
      are skew lines (neither parallel nor intersecting)
    • C
      intersect at the point \((1, 2, 3)\)
    • D
      are parallel
  40. Q140. The derivative of \(\sin x\) with respect to \(\cos x\) is

    • A
      \(\cot x\)
    • B
      \(-\cot x\)
    • C
      \(\tan x\)
    • D
      \(-\tan x\)
  41. Q141. The minimum value of \(z = 3x + 5y\) subject to \(x + y \ge 2\), \(x + 3y \ge 3\), \(x \ge 0\), \(y \ge 0\) is

    • A
      \(9\)
    • B
      \(10\)
    • C
      \(6\)
    • D
      \(7\)
  42. Q142. \(A\) and \(B\) are acute angles with \(\sin A = \frac{3}{5}\) and \(\cos B = \frac{5}{13}\). Then \(\sin(A + B)\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{56}{65}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{16}{65}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{33}{65}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{63}{65}\)
  43. Q143. \(\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 0} (1 + 3x)^{\frac{2}{x}}\) is

    • A
      \(e^{3/2}\)
    • B
      \(e^3\)
    • C
      \(e^{2/3}\)
    • D
      \(e^6\)
  44. Q144. The area of the region bounded by the curve \(y = \log x\), the \(x\)-axis and the line \(x = e\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{1}{e}\) square units
    • B
      \(1\) square unit
    • C
      \(e - 1\) square units
    • D
      \(e\) square units
  45. Q145. The integrating factor of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} + y\tan x = \sec x\) is

    • A
      \(\sec x\)
    • B
      \(\cos x\)
    • C
      \(e^{\tan x}\)
    • D
      \(\tan x\)
  46. Q146. \(\displaystyle\int \tan^{-1}x\,dx\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{1}{1 + x^2} + c\)
    • B
      \(x\tan^{-1}x + \frac{1}{2}\log(1 + x^2) + c\)
    • C
      \(x\tan^{-1}x - \log(1 + x^2) + c\)
    • D
      \(x\tan^{-1}x - \frac{1}{2}\log(1 + x^2) + c\)
  47. Q147. The value of \(\tan^{-1} 1 + \tan^{-1} 2 + \tan^{-1} 3\) is

    • A
      \(\frac{3\pi}{4}\)
    • B
      \(\pi\)
    • C
      \(0\)
    • D
      \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  48. Q148. The probability that a bulb of a certain kind fuses within a year is \(0.05\). The probability that none of \(5\) such bulbs fuses within a year is

    • A
      \((0.95)^5\)
    • B
      \(1 - (0.05)^5\)
    • C
      \((0.05)^5\)
    • D
      \(5(0.05)(0.95)^4\)
  49. Q149. In \(4\) independent trials, the probability of success in each trial is \(\frac{1}{3}\). The probability of exactly \(2\) successes is

    • A
      \(\frac{2}{9}\)
    • B
      \(\frac{4}{81}\)
    • C
      \(\frac{16}{81}\)
    • D
      \(\frac{8}{27}\)
  50. Q150. \(\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi} |\cos x|\,dx\) is

    • A
      \(0\)
    • B
      \(2\)
    • C
      \(1\)
    • D
      \(\pi\)

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